Opioids Tramadol sublingual? I think not.

[flipflopper]

So I've been joypopping some old tramadol. Very bad, I know, evil. But it was prescribed to me and I just kept it after my surgeries were over. I only take it two or three times a month, and never more than one 50 mg tablet. I find it reduces my anxiety and makes me happy and creative. I've reduced alcohol to maybe one beer a week, so I feel okay with this little mini-vice, as I've never increased my dose or frequency since I was first prescribed it about 10 years ago.

My question is this. I was thinking since my current stash is 5 years old, that I should take it sublingually for maximum effect. However I find sublingual use actually mutes it, so much so I thought the pills had really expired. Tonight I took it the standard way (swallow with water and a cracker) and it's like the stuff is brand new.

What gives? How could it be that sublingual use actually de-potentiates it? That does not seem scientifically possible.

I also wonder if the same thing is true for diazepam, as I have some of those 5-year-old pills as well.

 

[TheFunkeeJunkee]

Due to Tramadol's pharmacokinetic profile, it requires hepatic metabolism into O-DSMT become active as an opioid agonist. This basically means that no route of administration will produce effects stronger then simply taking it orally.

You can take it sublingully if you want, but there will be no benefit.

In my opinion sublingul is usually not worth it barring drugs that have substantially higher bioavailability when used in this manner.

 

[flipflopper]

Thank you for that explanation!