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The gun thread, reloaded.

You claim that it is impossible to keep guns out of the hands of "bad guys", however many other parts of the western world do a great job doing so. Gun death/injury statistics display this year after year.

I'm quoting Shimmer but this question is for everyone. I have asked it once, but it needs to be said again. What is the purpose of gun control? To lower incidents of violence by gun or to lower the murder rate? If controlling guns doesn't change the number of people being killed, then what's the point? All you're doing is shifting the killing from one tool to another. And worse, you deny people the ability to protect themselves with a very effective weapon.

By the way, I can post verifiable data showing that the UK gun ban of 1997 had no positive effect on their murder rate. People just started killing with other instruments instead. Here: http://www.bbc.com/news/uk-18900384 and https://www.gov.uk/government/publications/historical-crime-data

There's plenty of others sources that show the same. No right or left wing bias needed. So what are we talking about here? Lowering gun/death injuries (seemingly pointless if replaced by other means) or actually making a dent in the murder rate?


If there are so many guns in the world, how come I haven't heard one go off since the last time I was in the US?

How come I never heard one go off when I lived in southern Orange County, CA? A pre-dominantly right-wing county with very high rates of gun ownership. Grew up there, 20 years. How come now that I live in Long Beach, CA, I hear them periodically? Been there 10+ years. Figure it's got more to do with the person than the tool itself.
 
If controlling guns doesn't change the number of people being killed, then what's the point?
usa
gun ownership per capita: 0.89
murders per 100K: 14.173K

england
gun ownership per capita: 0.062
murders per 100K: 0.722K

the us gun ownership rate is 14.35 times than of england. the murder rate is 19.6 times.

q.e.d?

alasdair
 
Ali said:

Not quite. The US incurs more geographically concentrated poverty than what is seen in the UK, along with competition among poorly consolidated organized criminal syndicates, boosting our level of violent crime. While we should expect further restriction of firearms to reduce the rate of violent crime, such measures don't really address its root cause (well, again, statistically, we should be focusing more on suicides than violent crime).

ebola
 
Actually, no. I ran the numbers once in this forum, comparing US states, and it turns out that some states with high per capita gun ownership had pretty low murder rates.

Here's the post
.

I agree that responsible gun ownership is possible (don't really think so in the US, culture too violence oriented). However, think of the unprecedented stability the last few and current generations are enjoying. Watch how violence increases statistically anywhere where stability is disrupted. It happens nearly every time.

I've heard lots of guns going off in and around my home city. Around parks with lots of forest, and when getting out in the country (used to shoot myself quite a bit as a kid). I know a lot are just people goofing off, but guns serve only one true purpose. I feel much better being somewhere where I know the jackass redneck who thinks its funny to kill shit or the wanna be gangster who thinks its cool to kill shit isn't armed to the teeth sitting on the bus next to me.

Wicked702:
You all love quoting England don't you? The simple statistic Ali pointed out involving the murder rate by gun comparison (the only clear cut one) undermines your argument pretty completely. What you say can be true if you manipulate the statistics, and conveniently forget to mention that England also has a lower standard for what is actually considered violent crime. Try Denmark, Holland, France, Germany, Italy, Austria, or Hungary for murder rate by gun.
 
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Actually, no. I ran the numbers once in this forum, comparing US states, and it turns out that some states with high per capita gun ownership had pretty low murder rates.

Here's the post
.

Escher, I understand what you are saying, but unfortunately you are making the same mistake as many others here.

1. More guns = More gun deaths (or Less guns = Less gun deaths)
2. More guns = Higher murder rate (or Less guns = Lower murder rate)

TL;DR: #1 is true, #2 is false. Gun-control advocates frequently equate the two. This leads to a logical flaw and incorrect statistical analysis. Read on for specifics if you wish.


These are two completely different items. In order for them to be the same, you would need a direct relationship between the two. That means one going up would cause the other to do the same and vice versa. If ANY example can be provided showing a change in one producing no change in the other (or an inverse change), then they are separate. For example, every year we have murders by gun, knife, blunt object, strangulation, etc. What would happen to both items if a would-be strangler decided to purchase a gun and use it instead? #1 would be held true, correct? However, look at #2. #2 is false. Why? Because the murder took place regardless of the method. The murder rate neither increased nor decreased due to the additional gun.

Look at your statement. You are dealing with #2. #2 can be proved false in the method you describe.
I am dealing with #1. #1 can hold true without impacting #2.

This is why Ali's numbers are completely meaningless. There is no causal relationship being shown, for that you need to show a rate (change over time). In order to show that a society with more guns has a higher murder rate BECAUSE of those guns, you have to show a change in one variable producing a direct change in the other. In other words, you have to show that an increase in the number of guns available has produced an corresponding increase in the number/rate of murders. Or vice versa, that a decrease in the availability of guns has produced a corresponding decrease in the number/rate of murders.

Shimmer, the reason I focus on the UK (and I can do the same with Australia) is because they are the best examples of a rate (change over time). There's a before and after. We can look at the gun ownership/murders before the bans and then do the same after the bans. In both cases, we see no corresponding decrease in the murders. The number of murders by gun fell (#1), but the total murders (#2) remained the same or even increased. So #1 is true, but #2 is not.
 
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usa
gun ownership per capita: 0.89 - This is correct
murders per 100K: 14.173K - This should be 4.8

england
gun ownership per capita: 0.062 - This is correct
murders per 100K: 0.722K - This should be 1.2

the us gun ownership rate is 14.35 (CORRECT) times than of england. the murder rate is 19.6 (INCORRECT, this should be 4) times.

q.e.d?

alasdair

For a brief illustration of the explanation I gave above, here's a counter-example to these numbers. (Also, I'm afraid I must point out that your math is wrong. I'm on the wikipedia page and you've got things a bit mixed up. See my corrections above. Check the page again, you've got the wrong column.)

Norway
gun ownership per capita: 0.313
murders per 100K: 2.3

Russia
gun ownership per capita: 0.089
murders per 100K: 9.7

the Norway gun ownership rate is 3.52 times than of Russia. However, the murder rate is less than 1/4 (23.7 percent).

I have just proved the opposite with the same data. See, this is why this comparison is meaningless.

Sources: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Number_of_guns_per_capita_by_country and http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_countries_by_intentional_homicide_rate
 
wicked said:
This is why Ali's numbers are completely meaningless. There is no causal relationship being shown, for that you need to show a rate (change over time). In order to show that a society with more guns has a higher murder rate BECAUSE of those guns, you have to show a change in one variable producing a direct change in the other. In other words, you have to show that an increase in the number of guns available has produced an corresponding increase in the number/rate of murders.

This is not correct. Even with time-series data showing change in a given outcome demonstrated to cooccur with some trend or event, one can not definitively tease out potential covariates. So unless we want to say that epidemiological data cannot demonstrate causation in general (providing recourse only to experiments that would be impossible to carry out), cross-national comparison at a given moment in time remains useful. In the case of time-series data, one would further need to explain why one event or trend better explains the observations than other potential candidates, and with cross-national comparison, one needs to demonstrate that the countries in question are similar in relevant respects with the exception of the causal factor in question (in this case, regulation of firearms).

ebola
 
This is not correct. Even with time-series data showing change in a given outcome demonstrated to cooccur with some trend or event, one can not definitively tease out potential covariates. So unless we want to say that epidemiological data cannot demonstrate causation in general (providing recourse only to experiments that would be impossible to carry out), cross-national comparison at a given moment in time remains useful. In the case of time-series data, one would further need to explain why one event or trend better explains the observations than other potential candidates, and with cross-national comparison, one needs to demonstrate that the countries in question are similar in relevant respects with the exception of the causal factor in question (in this case, regulation of firearms).

ebola

Yes, I understand. No variable exists in isolation. Other factors are at play. But I disagree with this: "cross-national comparison at a given moment in time remains useful."

You cannot simply take one independent variable and compare it to another independent variable, with the intent to show causation. That's not logical. You cannot simply state something like "an increase in styrofoam cups causes an increase in mouse populations," then use data from one country compared to another to prove your point. One country has more cups and more mice, another has less cups and less mice. That isn't causation. For at least a bare minimum, you must show a direct increase in both variables concurrent with one-another. A minimum. Beyond that, arguments can be made as to the actual relationship when accounting for other variables. But without that minimum requirement being met, the hypothesis should immediately be regarded as questionable if not disregarded outright.

Not to get too far off topic, but this is a driving factor of AGW (Anthropogenic Global Warming). The time-series relationship of CO2 levels to global temperature is an absolute minimum requirement. If the two variables showed an inverse relationship, the theory would be immediately disregarded prima facie.

P.S. This should really go without saying, but what we're talking about here is primary driving factors. Secondary/contributing factors would likely not require this minimum relationship and are therefore much more difficult to prove/disprove. However if their effects (secondary) are so weak that they're being overridden by the primary factors, so much so that the data seems to show an inverse relationship, then they are not really worth considering at our level of discussion. This is my contention with #2 above. It may be a secondary factor, but it is quite tiny if so, so therefore false as a point of discussion.
 
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When measuring murder rates it's important to factor in several other things aside from gun ownership. While it's true, if there were no guns in the US, the murder rate would be drastically lower, because it's harder to kill someone with a knife or a blunt object or poison. The guns usually don't cause murder though. Norway's murder rate is far lower than Russia's despite having a higher percentage of gun ownership because Norway is a much more egalitarian society where poverty and uneducated citizenry isn't nearly as severe as it is in Russia or the US. Switzerland has a much higher rate of ownership than Norway even, and a much lower homicide rate.

The top five countries with the highest murder rates are Honduras, El Salvador, Ivory Coast, Venezuela and Belize. They all have a variety of different gun ownership rates. The common factor among countries with high murder rates is poverty and inequality. Which makes sense, desperation and deprivation make for very violent cultures.
 
wicked said:
You cannot simply take one independent variable and compare it to another independent variable, with the intent to show causation. That's not logical. You cannot simply state something like "an increase in styrofoam cups causes an increase in mouse populations," then use data from one country compared to another to prove your point. One country has more cups and more mice, another has less cups and less mice. That isn't causation. For at least a bare minimum, you must show a direct increase in both variables concurrent with one-another. A minimum.

I don't think that you understand my point. I meant to say that your criticism of synchronic cross-national comparison applies every bit as much to diachronic comparison within singular nations. It's simply the case that establishing correlation cannot establish causation with a high degree of certainty . However, in the case of research applicable to public policy, it is nearly never viable to run an experiment. Thus, no matter what one's method of establishing correlations comparatively, one needs attend to potential confounds and alternative explanations if they are to speak at all to potential causal mechanisms, and one can never achieve a high degree of certainty. However, it would be throwing out the baby with the bathwater to consider correlational data inapplicable to potential causation.


P.S. This should really go without saying, but what we're talking about here is primary driving factors. Secondary/contributing factors would likely not require this minimum relationship and are therefore much more difficult to prove/disprove.

This doesn't make sense. Regardless of the prominence of a particular causal factor, it must be held to similar epistemological standards to other causal factors. If anything, one needs to take further care with less prominent causal factors, as correlations that are just borderline significant are more easily subject to confounding influences.

ebola
 
I don't think that you understand my point. I meant to say that your criticism of synchronic cross-national comparison applies every bit as much to diachronic comparison within singular nations. It's simply the case that establishing correlation cannot establish causation with a high degree of certainty . However, in the case of research applicable to public policy, it is nearly never viable to run an experiment. Thus, no matter what one's method of establishing correlations comparatively, one needs attend to potential confounds and alternative explanations if they are to speak at all to potential causal mechanisms, and one can never achieve a high degree of certainty. However, it would be throwing out the baby with the bathwater to consider correlational data inapplicable to potential causation.

Alright, I think I understand what you're saying. Within a theoretical framework, I would have to agree. But, I think you might be misinterpreting my criticism. These comparisons we make regarding guns / murder rates and CO2 / global temperature (more on this in a moment) are made in a reality that requires (and I use this word specifically) an additional component. To establish a relevant relationship wherein the change of one independent variable affects a change in another independent variable (i.e. a rate, change over time, in math speak), the addition of time is a vital component. You cannot have change without time. Therefore, I submit that a synchronic cross-national comparison which seeks to establish such a relationship between variables is invalid prima facie, because it lacks the vital component of time.

I further submit that without the component of time, the theory regarding increasing CO2 concentrations vs. increasing global temperatures would be impossible to illustrate. This is an excellent example because it's nearly a direct parallel to the gun issue, given the potential presence of overriding factors such as the sun, ocean currents, etc. (on the AGW side) and poverty, culture, etc. (on the gun side). AGW is a change in one variable affecting a change in another, just like above. If you can provide a synchronic comparison that shows correlation between CO2 concentration and global temperature, I will retract my claim. However, I am completely baffled as to how one would accomplish this task without time as a component.

This doesn't make sense. Regardless of the prominence of a particular causal factor, it must be held to similar epistemological standards to other causal factors. If anything, one needs to take further care with less prominent causal factors, as correlations that are just borderline significant are more easily subject to confounding influences.

ebola

But you sort of make my point here. If the effect of a potential causal factor is borderline, its use beyond that of discussion in a scientific publication is marginal. It certainly doesn't allow us to look at real world data that directly contradicts the claim, yet still state that the claim is factual and significant.


While it's true, if there were no guns in the US, the murder rate would be drastically lower

Real world data does not support that claim. Amazingly enough. I realize for many it's hard to accept, but thems the breaks.
 
If you can provide a synchronic comparison that shows correlation between CO2 concentration and global temperature, I will retract my claim.

Very briefly, yes. Imagine that there is a twin Earth, the same as here in all respects except that human beings never developed the technique of mining and combustion of fossil fuels. This twin Earth has lower levels of atmospheric C02 and temperatures than our Earth. From these data, it would be possible to conclude that combustion of fossil fuels caused the observed difference in levels of atmospheric C02 and temperature (remember that all other factors are the same on this twin Earth). This example may seem far fetched, but remember that we have multiple countries available for comparison.

ebola
 
Real world data does not support that claim. Amazingly enough. I realize for many it's hard to accept, but thems the breaks.

Remember that we have multiple countries available for comparison.

This is the flaw in your argument. You have picked and chosen data sets purely on the basis that they support your argument. It has been shown that the ways in which England and the US acquire this data (i.e. the legal definition of assault) are not the same. Bardo pointed out that culture also plays a huge influence, but amongst the countries with which the US likes to compare itself it isn't doing so hot in terms of murder rate. Moreover, you fail to acknowledge the completely different sets of circumstances in which one can even legally acquire and use a firearm in either Norway or Switzerland. If you look closer, and stop using superficial information (start analyzing how the data was gathered in the first place) and data sets then you would see that real world data does support the claim.

I think I see your point, which is that with proper regulation guns are not the problem. I agree with this to some extent, but my problem is that if properly maintained a gun can last far longer than the stability (and ability to enforce regulation) in a region. Moreover, the purpose of guns are very limited, and there are already way too many out there. I always like this saying about the law of the instrument (Maslow's Hammer), "I suppose it is tempting, if the only tool you have is a hammer, to treat everything as if it were a nail".
 
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Very briefly, yes. Imagine that there is a twin Earth, the same as here in all respects except that human beings never developed the technique of mining and combustion of fossil fuels. This twin Earth has lower levels of atmospheric C02 and temperatures than our Earth. From these data, it would be possible to conclude that combustion of fossil fuels caused the observed difference in levels of atmospheric C02 and temperature (remember that all other factors are the same on this twin Earth). This example may seem far fetched, but remember that we have multiple countries available for comparison.

ebola

I certainly have to acknowledge the example. It's an intriguing idea. I think it's pretty clear though that I'm dealing in real world data and real world calculations. If we have to create imaginary parallel realities to satisfy the requirements, then it seems this particular issue (AGW) can't be examined in this manner (at least now). It's pretty clear you're trying to poke holes in my logical thinking, which is understandable, but I don't think it's unreasonable for me to confine such attempts to things that can actually be examined. On the gun/murder issue, I see what you mean. You've indicated two very important constraints though. Clearly it's been demonstrated that comparing only two countries can produce opposing results. So correct me if I'm wrong, but the only viable way to do this would be to compare multiple countries in series, no? Of course that leads us to your second constraint, that all other factors are equal. Comparing multiple countries in series AND holding all other factors equal seems like a monumental task. That's just seems like way too many variables.

I'm not understanding why my time-series comparison within a country isn't infinitely more palatable. While we still have the constraint of not having "all other factors equal/same," therefore we cannot make a final determination on one example only, we can at least evaluate the factor qualitatively in relation to other potential factors within the country. In my comparison, it's clear that there are massive overriding factors. Therefore, it's more probable that either the contribution of # of guns to murder rate is marginal or non-existent, than it is that the contribution is significant. It's not wrong to accept a probability as likely or true, as long as it holds out in other examples. And since we have such agreement in the available data, we have a trend. I still maintain that the conclusion, based on the currently available data, is correct. Maybe in the future we'll get different/more data and then we'll see.


This is the flaw in your argument. You have picked and chosen data sets purely on the basis that they support your argument. It has been shown that the ways in which England and the US acquire this data (i.e. the legal definition of assault) are not the same.

No, you're blatantly twisting the argument. I have picked and chosen nothing. Even gun ownership / murder rates in the USA support my claim, since gun ownership per capita has steadily increased over the decades yet we are at our lowest murder rate since the 1960's. I used the only available countries where we can see a clear separation of before gun bans and after. That is the most useful illustration of the effect of gun ownership on murders/rates. AT BEST we can concluded a marginal effect, because we see exactly what happened IN THE REAL WORLD when these bans went into effect. Until more countries institute strong gun bans, we will have to rely on what we have. Why the strawman on data collection? Except for my first couple posts, where I mentioned violent crime in general, I have focused exclusively on murder/murder rates. I have never mentioned assaults. Are you asserting that the US and UK count murders differently?

Bardo pointed out that culture also plays a huge influence, but amongst the countries with which the US likes to compare itself it isn't doing so hot in terms of murder rate.

BOOM! Now you're finally starting to a hint of the problem. It's not the guns, it's the culture. A culture that glorifies violence in general. A culture where people who shoot up movie theaters or schools get reported on in the news for weeks or even years. Instant fame. A culture with multiple genres of music dedicated to glorifying the violent lifestyle. A culture where the lower classes are told that they are victims of societal oppression, instead of being encouraged to develop their talents to the fullest. It's us, not the tool. And moreover, this lends credence to the socialists desire of a more egalitarian society, as much as I dislike admitting so.

Moreover, you fail to acknowledge the completely different sets of circumstances in which one can even legally acquire and use a firearm in either Norway or Switzerland. If you look closer, and stop using superficial information (start analyzing how the data was gathered in the first place) and data sets then you would see that real world data does support the claim.

I think I see your point, which is that with proper regulation guns are not the problem. I agree with this to some extent, but my problem is that if properly maintained a gun can last far longer than the stability (and ability to enforce regulation) in a region. Moreover, the purpose of guns are very limited, and there are already way too many out there. I always like this saying about the law of the instrument (Maslow's Hammer), "I suppose it is tempting, if the only tool you have is a hammer, to treat everything as if it were a nail".

I am using real-world data, straight from the governments of first-world countries. Governments that all count murders the same way. We have the proper regulation. WE AREN'T ENFORCING THEM. Screw patient rights, we need to tie mental health to the NICS, like the NRA wants. We need to investigate 100% of attempted illegal purchases. And we need to require more safety training and education, while also opening up CCW permits to those who can pass periodic mental checks, stringent training, and prove proficiency. We need to identify the source(s) of illegal guns that get into the hands of criminals/gang members (the vast majority of guns used in crimes) and find a way to curb that supply. We need to stop focusing on the types of guns people want ("assault" rifles, etc.), because that's mostly a red-herring (as long as our screening process is better). And handguns are the real problem anyway, but you're never going to make headway on that issue with the 2nd amendment as is. So forget it. And finally, do away with "gun free zones." That idea is about the dumbest thing ever in the history of trying to stop gun violence.
 
When measuring murder rates it's important to factor in several other things aside from gun ownership. While it's true, if there were no guns in the US, the murder rate would be drastically lower, because it's harder to kill someone with a knife or a blunt object or poison. The guns usually don't cause murder though. Norway's murder rate is far lower than Russia's despite having a higher percentage of gun ownership because Norway is a much more egalitarian society where poverty and uneducated citizenry isn't nearly as severe as it is in Russia or the US. Switzerland has a much higher rate of ownership than Norway even, and a much lower homicide rate.

The top five countries with the highest murder rates are Honduras, El Salvador, Ivory Coast, Venezuela and Belize. They all have a variety of different gun ownership rates. The common factor among countries with high murder rates is poverty and inequality. Which makes sense, desperation and deprivation make for very violent cultures.

Exactly! It has far more to do with the socio-economic situation of any given place then it does with how strict gun laws are. Here in Canada you can buy most of the same guns that have ended up on the news in the US because of shooting sprees. You can buy a AR-15, AR-180b and alot of other assault rifles as well as semi auto handguns and shotguns. The only real difference is that in Canada you are only allowed to have a 5 shot mag but that's hardly a obstacle. Hell the Winchester 12 gauge pump i have holds 6 in the mag with the plug out. You can't get any full auto's legally here but i's not hard to get a modified one. But even with the booming drug trade here gun violence is still very low. There are only a few cities in Canada where gun crime is much of a problem. I think Canada not having such a huge income gap as the US explains alot of it.

So it's hardly as simple as more guns=more murders. However i wouldn't have a problem keeping guns out of the hands of people with mental disorders who have shown suicidal behaviour. I know far more then enough people who blew their brains out and i lost a few friends that way. I often wonder if they hadn't the choice of a very quick way out (although i have heard horror stories here of people who shot themselves with say .22's or .410's and didn't die right away) would they have gone through with it? Then again the number of attempted suicides by say APAP poisoning probably shoots that theory to shit.
 
^^ No, I'd say there is a very clear causative correlation between stricter gun laws and reduced rates of gun deaths - Canada still has a much higher rate than countries like UK, Japan and Australia who have much stricter regulations

http://www.businessinsider.com.au/canada-australia-japan-britain-gun-control-2013-1

The cultural side may have *some* impact in terms of the scale of American homicides but the link with gun laws is really quite hard to deny.
 
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