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"The Department of Justice considers [DOC] to be an analogue of DOB" DOC an analogue?

FunctionalOlfactio

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"The Department of Justice considers [DOC] to be an analogue of DOB" DOC an analogue?

"The Department of Justice considers [DOC] to be an analogue of DOB" -Wikipedia

Lets keep this away from legal discussion as much as possible. From the perspective of medicinal chemistry is DOC an analogue of DOB. I got myself started on this and DOC is different than DOB. DOC has different effects and is different structurally than DOB, so they aren't analogues from the chemistry perspective? I am just insuring I don't convince myself of something false.
 
They are analogues. The only difference is that DOC contains a chlorine, whereas in DOB this is substituted for a bromine atom.

Here are the two names:

2,5-Dimethoxy-4-chloroamphetamine (DOC)
2,5-Dimethoxy-4-bromoamphetamine (DOB)

Hope that helps. :)

In case you're interested, this means that DOI is also an analogue. It's formula is 2,5-Dimethoxy-4-iodoamphetamine. This includes DOM (2,5-Dimethoxy-4-methylamphetamine), DOE (2,5-Dimethoxy-4-ethylamphetamine), and most likely many more DOx compounds.

EDIT: Here is a wikipedia page listing some DOx compounds - http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/2,5-Dimethoxy-4-Substituted_Amphetamine
 
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I guess all DOX are cousins that way, and all by definition analogues since they only differ on the X which is the subsitution on the 4-position.

Technically TMA-2 is also an analogue that way because it is basically DOMeO, although that name is very silly because the DO letters mean desoxy or "No O anymore". That especially includes that O in the MeO from TMA-2.
 
Man I hope that doesn't mean they're moving to illegalize my favorite psychedelic...
 
I would fucken wish Obamacare would guarantee your right to DOC. ;)
 
So all psychedelic 2, 5 dimethoxy amphetamines are analogues of each other? Even if you replaced the halogen in the 5th position with something else, like in DOET?
 
Because they all produce similar effects as hallucinogens, I'd think so, yes.

But conveniently, only analogues of scheule 1 or 2 compounds are considered analogues... not analogues of scheule III compounds.
 
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