I really want to get to the bottom of this batch variance. I'm holding 2 crystalline batches- on the surface they look very similar, but in practice they are very very different in effects.
The first batch is some super magical stuff. It has incredible therapeutic properties as I've witnessed in myself and others with whom it has been shared. 'medicinal', 'clean', 'symmetrical', 'euphoric' are the words that come to mind here.
The second batch, while appearing similar, is not. Vaporizing test displays the same reaction, very similar smell.. it first melts translucent and then turns to red with hints of purple in the process. However, the experience is not close to the therapeutic potential of batch #1. 'Fucked up', 'cloudy', 'wonky', 'asymmetrical' are the phenomenological descriptors of this batch.
I want nothing more than to know why batch #1 is so awesome and why batch #2 isn't. What are the variables to account for this discrepancy, and how can we identify them? These questions need to be answered for the good of the world, because batch #2 is preventing the world from realizing the true potential of batch #1.
Edit: the 2 batches from two different sources have both been tested many many times with many different subjects, so this comparison has filtered out phenomenological variances that occur through set and setting. I know the topic has already been beat to death with debate, but there hasn't yet been any link on this thread to hard science confirming the stereochemistry theory, which is the most likely reason between the difference.