Good morning Sekio,
I will try not to repeat information.
Informed, lengthy response with sources much appreciated
.
I once read that LSDs ability to target more receptors makes it more of a gentle hallucinogen than psilocybin, that it has less of an ability to induce a negative experience due to this, but I can see how this might lead to the opposite case too. Perhaps in regards to more selective agonism of receptor sub-types which are associated with hallucinogenic effects the mind is more likely to begin to feel scared due to such a rapid diversion from our "collective conscience", if you will, and may be able to distract its attention to the feeling of other neurotransmitters if such action is present. Just speculation.
Yes but it seems as if psilocybin and mdma are gaining more ethos every year; the former is liable to produce a bad trip while the latter the produce organ damage. Mescaline is an extremely valuable drug insofar as a combination of negative experiences being rare, effects being similar to mdma (I know, people say that about a lot of drugs, but please take all points in sum), and physical safety evidenced by thousands of years of use with no data of permanent toxicity after a therapeutic dose to my knowledge (it causes vomiting too, so though it has a lower LD50 than other psychedelics it has a safety-catch). It is not being scientifically investigated to my knowledge.
And why would it be the psychedelic most sanctioned for religious use by The United States? Chance? Less potential to cause widespread egalitarianism? A bone for Native Americans in lieu of broken treaties and stolen lands? Greater mental safety relative to the other 5-ht2a agonists?
I recommend the book entitled "On Speed". It holds that the medical profession once considered the closest approximation of endogenous psychosis to drug intoxication being that of amphetamine overdose. I guess there's no way to really know. If the last twenty years are any indication, with the introduction of serotonergic antagonists as anti-psychotics, it would seem as if the viewpoint has changed to that of psychedelic overdose. Of course excessive and/or chronic NMDA antagonism and CB1 agonism can cause it too. I wonder if its possible to manufacture a drug which functions as a d2/5-ht2a/cb1 antagonist and 5-ht2c/5-ht1a/cb2 agonist and serotonin-norepinepherine re-uptake inhibitor.
Hey, Gauis,
I think your general question is better answered more through an artistic, psychiatric viewpoint than from that of a psychopharmacologist.
consider genetic polymorphism perhaps, broface
FYI paradoxical and different responses to psychoactives are well-documented, mostly regarding compounds with hallucinogenic activity, but regarding gabaergic compounds I recall that the potent hypnotic benzodiazepine triazolam was removed from the market in several countries due to it causing agitated/psychotic reactions in some people in doses of .5mg+; in fact high doses of drugs which act on benzo sub-units which are mostly a1 selective are somewhat notorious for causing a strange, delirious state in some users.
I also recently read a case study in which a young man was admitted to a hospital in a severely agitated, psychotic and violent state. He was given benzodiazepines and neuroleptics, both of which didn't abate his symptoms. Don't ask me why, as this could have been catastrophic, but he was also given methylphenidate, which immediately stabilized him.
I know this is ADD but we must take individual experience into account to verify the physical variation in our brains. Allow me elaborate on the symptomatic effect of two apparently competing substances on me.
Case Study: Me on dextroamphetamine: I feel a sense of calm and control that only meditation can give to such an extent (save if I'm severely intoxicated on a gabaergic, and even so the quality is "crude" in comparison); I have much compassion for those around me (after six months use even); I have much, much, much less trouble breathing and talking to people due to overwhelming physio-emotional anxiety that I would otherwise regularly experience (this is key); I am peaceful; I can sit in one seat for ten hours; I am, though, ready for anything, willing and 100% capable though not eager to assert my presence; I am, metaphorically speaking, a consolidated individual with purposeful conviction, counter to my usual self of terrified godless fanaticism. On dextroamphetamine, I am! As for negative symptoms, I really can't think of any, as for a "crash" I just get tired.
Case Study: Me on clonazepam: the world takes on a certain fluidity; time and circumstance doesn't pass in rigid performances so much as in a casual flow; stressful barriers to physical movement are removed (beforehand I would feel the need to establish an almost forceful presence or I would otherwise feel enslaved whenever entering a novel space, especially in which there are other people, its hard to explain but maybe someone can relate); there is a definite component of freedom about it; it is a liberal substance in that it vanquishes my constant propensity to evaluate myself based on other peoples standards, an irrational, debilitating symptom; it simply removes the edge from any stressful situation through direct "chillness"; paradoxically, I can sometimes feel too numbed on this agent, usually if I'm stupid enough to sit around and make myself depressed.
If I had more time to brainstorm I would, but as you can read, the aforementioned potent stimulant and latter potent depressant have complementing, augmentative effects on each other for my weird illness, which I can't even described (I sat here for two minutes and realized I didn't have the timee to do it justice). When it comes to relieving symptoms of anxiety/paranoia, at least for me, they overlap.
Both activate the reward pathway, as does etizolam. Perhaps it just reduces depression, prompting more activity.
It sounds like etizolam clears the mind for you. Not uncommon. Once the mind is clear/organized, it's less weighed down, and can act. Less bureaucracy (f.o. over-analysis and stress) leads to a more efficient course. One sign of a good medicine is a more productive life after taking it. Mental illness generally erects barriers to life that healthy people don't have to deal with, and medications help remove those barriers.
Mind if I ask if why the great variation in dose and if you're prescribed it? If you're not, and you have a disorder which it would significantly help with, it would be more safe to take under a doctor's supervision. Please consider. Thanks.
Hope that wasn't too off-topic.
I will try not to repeat information.
Informed, lengthy response with sources much appreciated
.I once read that LSDs ability to target more receptors makes it more of a gentle hallucinogen than psilocybin, that it has less of an ability to induce a negative experience due to this, but I can see how this might lead to the opposite case too. Perhaps in regards to more selective agonism of receptor sub-types which are associated with hallucinogenic effects the mind is more likely to begin to feel scared due to such a rapid diversion from our "collective conscience", if you will, and may be able to distract its attention to the feeling of other neurotransmitters if such action is present. Just speculation.
Yes but it seems as if psilocybin and mdma are gaining more ethos every year; the former is liable to produce a bad trip while the latter the produce organ damage. Mescaline is an extremely valuable drug insofar as a combination of negative experiences being rare, effects being similar to mdma (I know, people say that about a lot of drugs, but please take all points in sum), and physical safety evidenced by thousands of years of use with no data of permanent toxicity after a therapeutic dose to my knowledge (it causes vomiting too, so though it has a lower LD50 than other psychedelics it has a safety-catch). It is not being scientifically investigated to my knowledge.
And why would it be the psychedelic most sanctioned for religious use by The United States? Chance? Less potential to cause widespread egalitarianism? A bone for Native Americans in lieu of broken treaties and stolen lands? Greater mental safety relative to the other 5-ht2a agonists?
I recommend the book entitled "On Speed". It holds that the medical profession once considered the closest approximation of endogenous psychosis to drug intoxication being that of amphetamine overdose. I guess there's no way to really know. If the last twenty years are any indication, with the introduction of serotonergic antagonists as anti-psychotics, it would seem as if the viewpoint has changed to that of psychedelic overdose. Of course excessive and/or chronic NMDA antagonism and CB1 agonism can cause it too. I wonder if its possible to manufacture a drug which functions as a d2/5-ht2a/cb1 antagonist and 5-ht2c/5-ht1a/cb2 agonist and serotonin-norepinepherine re-uptake inhibitor.
Hey, Gauis,
I think your general question is better answered more through an artistic, psychiatric viewpoint than from that of a psychopharmacologist.
consider genetic polymorphism perhaps, broface
FYI paradoxical and different responses to psychoactives are well-documented, mostly regarding compounds with hallucinogenic activity, but regarding gabaergic compounds I recall that the potent hypnotic benzodiazepine triazolam was removed from the market in several countries due to it causing agitated/psychotic reactions in some people in doses of .5mg+; in fact high doses of drugs which act on benzo sub-units which are mostly a1 selective are somewhat notorious for causing a strange, delirious state in some users.
I also recently read a case study in which a young man was admitted to a hospital in a severely agitated, psychotic and violent state. He was given benzodiazepines and neuroleptics, both of which didn't abate his symptoms. Don't ask me why, as this could have been catastrophic, but he was also given methylphenidate, which immediately stabilized him.
I know this is ADD but we must take individual experience into account to verify the physical variation in our brains. Allow me elaborate on the symptomatic effect of two apparently competing substances on me.
Case Study: Me on dextroamphetamine: I feel a sense of calm and control that only meditation can give to such an extent (save if I'm severely intoxicated on a gabaergic, and even so the quality is "crude" in comparison); I have much compassion for those around me (after six months use even); I have much, much, much less trouble breathing and talking to people due to overwhelming physio-emotional anxiety that I would otherwise regularly experience (this is key); I am peaceful; I can sit in one seat for ten hours; I am, though, ready for anything, willing and 100% capable though not eager to assert my presence; I am, metaphorically speaking, a consolidated individual with purposeful conviction, counter to my usual self of terrified godless fanaticism. On dextroamphetamine, I am! As for negative symptoms, I really can't think of any, as for a "crash" I just get tired.
Case Study: Me on clonazepam: the world takes on a certain fluidity; time and circumstance doesn't pass in rigid performances so much as in a casual flow; stressful barriers to physical movement are removed (beforehand I would feel the need to establish an almost forceful presence or I would otherwise feel enslaved whenever entering a novel space, especially in which there are other people, its hard to explain but maybe someone can relate); there is a definite component of freedom about it; it is a liberal substance in that it vanquishes my constant propensity to evaluate myself based on other peoples standards, an irrational, debilitating symptom; it simply removes the edge from any stressful situation through direct "chillness"; paradoxically, I can sometimes feel too numbed on this agent, usually if I'm stupid enough to sit around and make myself depressed.
If I had more time to brainstorm I would, but as you can read, the aforementioned potent stimulant and latter potent depressant have complementing, augmentative effects on each other for my weird illness, which I can't even described (I sat here for two minutes and realized I didn't have the timee to do it justice). When it comes to relieving symptoms of anxiety/paranoia, at least for me, they overlap.
Both activate the reward pathway, as does etizolam. Perhaps it just reduces depression, prompting more activity.
It sounds like etizolam clears the mind for you. Not uncommon. Once the mind is clear/organized, it's less weighed down, and can act. Less bureaucracy (f.o. over-analysis and stress) leads to a more efficient course. One sign of a good medicine is a more productive life after taking it. Mental illness generally erects barriers to life that healthy people don't have to deal with, and medications help remove those barriers.
Mind if I ask if why the great variation in dose and if you're prescribed it? If you're not, and you have a disorder which it would significantly help with, it would be more safe to take under a doctor's supervision. Please consider. Thanks.
Hope that wasn't too off-topic.
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