Belisarius
Bluelighter
For some time I've been fascinated by this statement from Shulgin's entry for FLEA:
Just how general might this concept be, that an N-hydroxyl analog of an active amine shall be of similar action and duration as the parent drug? What if it really were a generality! What havoc it would wreak in the pharmaceutical industry! If I could patent the concept, then I would be able to make parallel best sellers to all of the primary and secondary amines out there in the industry. Perhaps 90% of all the commercially available drugs that are concerned with the human mental state are amines. And a goodly number of these are primary or secondary amines. And each and every one of these could be converted to its N-hydroxyl analogue, effectively by-passing the patent protection that the originating corporation so carefully crafted. An example, just for fun. A run-away best seller right now is an antidepressant called fluoxetine, with the trade name Prozac. I will make a small wager that if I were to synthesize and taste N-hydroxy-N-methyl-3-phenyl-3-((a,a,a-trifluoro-p-tolyl)oxy)propylamine, I would find it to be an active antidepressant. Remember, Mr. Eli Lilly and Company; you read about it first, right here!
link:
http://www.erowid.org/library/books_online/pihkal/pihkal081.shtml
My question for those in the know is: just how general do you think the principle is that hydroxylated analogues of amines are--or should be--equipotent and similar in action to the originals? Has this been true in the studies you've read or known about? As he mentioned, there are a huge number of amines out there; if hydroxy analogues could double their number, it might be a major find.
Thoughts?
Just how general might this concept be, that an N-hydroxyl analog of an active amine shall be of similar action and duration as the parent drug? What if it really were a generality! What havoc it would wreak in the pharmaceutical industry! If I could patent the concept, then I would be able to make parallel best sellers to all of the primary and secondary amines out there in the industry. Perhaps 90% of all the commercially available drugs that are concerned with the human mental state are amines. And a goodly number of these are primary or secondary amines. And each and every one of these could be converted to its N-hydroxyl analogue, effectively by-passing the patent protection that the originating corporation so carefully crafted. An example, just for fun. A run-away best seller right now is an antidepressant called fluoxetine, with the trade name Prozac. I will make a small wager that if I were to synthesize and taste N-hydroxy-N-methyl-3-phenyl-3-((a,a,a-trifluoro-p-tolyl)oxy)propylamine, I would find it to be an active antidepressant. Remember, Mr. Eli Lilly and Company; you read about it first, right here!
link:
http://www.erowid.org/library/books_online/pihkal/pihkal081.shtml
My question for those in the know is: just how general do you think the principle is that hydroxylated analogues of amines are--or should be--equipotent and similar in action to the originals? Has this been true in the studies you've read or known about? As he mentioned, there are a huge number of amines out there; if hydroxy analogues could double their number, it might be a major find.
Thoughts?