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Quantum Mechanics, Power of thought, Reality- Truly amazing

eh

On the original topic...
I am reading The Universe In a Nutshell by Stephen Hawking right now...
I recommend it if you're not that familiar with this topic. it's really easy to understand and has great quality illustrations to help to understand the basics... and other advanced stuff.
 
qwedsa said:
^when we say that a higher-level item does something, what's happening is all of its constituent parts are doing the act. when causality goes from top to bottom, it goes from bottom to top at the same time so the reductionism still works fine

That's purely conjectural in cases that involve and "observer" or "measurement" since they seem to imply intentionality. There's not been any useful reductive theories of intentionality yet.

Perhaps Zorn or AlphaNumeric would like to explain the "problem of measurement" in its contemporary formulation...?

As I understand it, under the old Copenhagen interpretation, the act of "measurement" was not well defined, leading to all sorts of confusion about the necessity of consciousness etc in collapsing the wave function. This has now been revised so that the "measuring" device is simply any macroscopic body, correct? In Zorn's orginal reply to me, he the way he described the measuring device was that it never had to actually be viewed by an observer, but it implied an intentional role as device designed to measure.

Although now I've confused myself by reading that decoherence only produces the appearance of wave function collapse.
 
specialspack said:
That's purely conjectural in cases that involve and "observer" or "measurement" since they seem to imply intentionality. There's not been any useful reductive theories of intentionality yet.
Hmm, there's no intentionality involved. Collision with a wall counts as a 'measurement' for example, though obviously a wall is not a measuring device. A measuring device must be macroscopic, in the sense that it must possess a very large number of degrees of freedom. Its interaction with a quantum system must be such as to entagle one of the properties of the syste/m (the one to be measured) with itself, in such a way that the quantum (superposed) nature of the system is somehow turned into a single, classical result, with the quantum system's state 'collapsed' into that subspace compatible with the result.

As I understand it, the problem of measurement (or at least one aspect) is what that 'somehow' is. We can consider it from another angle: there ought to be nothing to prohibit us from consider both the measurement device and the measured object as part of one large system -- it will have an enormous number of degrees of freedom, but in theory we can consider it all the same. In that case, the ordinary rules of QM apply, and the system evolves unitarily into some superposition of states. Roughly speaking we will have a superposition of the form |measured X> * |state X> + |measured Y> * |Y> . But when we look at our measuring device, we see just one real thing, not some bizarre superposition. ie we see either |measured X> * |X> (the device reads X, and then the system 'collapsed' into |X>) or |measured Y> * |Y>. Somehow we are in one of these two subspaces. So how does that happen?

I'm not too familiar with the current state of thinking about the problem. AFAIK, there are various ideas about this. Perhaps there is a physical process of 'collapse' that takes place when an entaglement reaches a large enough 'size.' Perhaps consciousness is involved somehow and we ourselves fall into one or the other subspaces. I've even seen several papers which claimed to find a solution which dispensed with the issue altogether somehow; though I didn't understand exactly how they related to this formulation of the problem.

It's very confusing. But I don't think it necessarily implies any problem with metaphysical reductionism -- some plausible theories of measurement, such as those with spontaneous decoherence, seem like ordinary reductionist theories.

--zorn
 
Zorn:

When you are discussing aspects of QM such as the 'problem of measurement', are you extrapolating information strictly out of QFT?

The issues that I am having with grasping the abstractions of QM (aside from the fact that I do not understand the mathematics involved) is deciding which interpretations of QM are the most accurate. I have read several different theories, which all seem to convey that macroscopic systems emerge out of the quantum level. Several indicate that when we reduce some systems to their constituent parts, that the whole is greater then the parts that make it up and that the properties of the particles which make up the systems, simply are not enough to explain the macroscopic system. I have, however, briefly read Bohm's simple version indicating that causal factors are embedded and we simply do not have the techniques to uncover them yet.

I certainly do not invoke any 'metaphysical' connection to the collapse of the wave function and I understand that any macroscopic physical device such as a particle detector, is capable of collapsing the wave function but I am trying to grasp exactly what is going on. I have read about the pragmatic approach (which I think Neil's Bohr first presented) which essentially states that we shouldn't concern ourselves with 'the problem of measurement' and that we should regard it as one of the universe's deep mysteries.

Does QFT 'ignore' the problem as well, or are the popular interpretations of QM simply erroneous and inaccurate? Also, I was reading about the vacuum states of various quantum fields and they seem to indicate that QFT generates a lot of infinities which arise out of the zero-point energy. Does E=mc² still govern the quantum vacuum of the various quantum fields?

I am still trying to get a clear understand of basic conceptual QM (including QFT and others), so your input would probably help with grouping concepts into propositions. I have absolutely no attachment to whether QM is considered indeterminate or determinate, I simply just want to understand what's going on!
 
Zorn said:
^^^ Naa -- there's neither a particle nor a wave (in the ordinary senses), just the wavefunction. That propagates like a wave, until it is 'measured' -- then it 'collapses' down to the result of the measurement.
i think that is very similar to what i had pictured. when a certain part of the wave hits something (is measured) the wave collapses down to that point, all of the energy hits at that point, as if it was a particle all along. perhaps i need to take linear algebra and differential equations before i try to understand this stuff though
 
complexPHILOSOPHY said:
Zorn:

When you are discussing aspects of QM such as the 'problem of measurement', are you extrapolating information strictly out of QFT?
Naa, when discussing measurement etc. I've just been using 'ordinary' QM. By that I mean the single-particle, non-relativistic quantum mechanics that most people learn. Now QM is wrong because it doesn't take into account relativity, but of course it works perfectly fine in situations where that's unimportant. QFT is what you get when you combine QM with Einstein's theory of special relativity, and consider fields rather than single particles. It's the more fundamental, more correct theory, though in practice it's used much less because it's much harder to do things with and for most problems regular QM works fine.

I've thought about this a bit, and I believe that going to QFT doesn't change anything about the problem of measurement, it just adds unrelated complications. So vis-a-vis the problem of measurement, it's simpler just to stay with ordinary QM; any solution there will work mutatis mutandis for QFT.
The issues that I am having with grasping the abstractions of QM (aside from the fact that I do not understand the mathematics involved) is deciding which interpretations of QM are the most accurate. I have read several different theories, which all seem to convey that macroscopic systems emerge out of the quantum level. Several indicate that when we reduce some systems to their constituent parts, that the whole is greater then the parts that make it up and that the properties of the particles which make up the systems, simply are not enough to explain the macroscopic system. I have, however, briefly read Bohm's simple version indicating that causal factors are embedded and we simply do not have the techniques to uncover them yet.
The nice thing about the various interpretations of QM is you can pick whichever one suits you best. There's generally no way of distinguishing experimentally amongst them, so they all yield the same predictions and are all equally consistent with the observations. So you can equally well believe a spontaneous-collapse interpretation, a Bohmian 'pilot wave' interpretation, a many-worlds interpretation, whichever you like. These are different philosophically but make the same quantum-mechanical predictions.

I am not sure what you are talking about when you refer to interpretations that imply "the whole is greater than the parts." The behavior of a system is determined by the rules of quantum mechanics applied to its components; you don't need to add anything new. The problem of measurement applies just as well to systems with only one particle as those with many.
I certainly do not invoke any 'metaphysical' connection to the collapse of the wave function and I understand that any macroscopic physical device such as a particle detector, is capable of collapsing the wave function but I am trying to grasp exactly what is going on. I have read about the pragmatic approach (which I think Neil's Bohr first presented) which essentially states that we shouldn't concern ourselves with 'the problem of measurement' and that we should regard it as one of the universe's deep mysteries.
It's true that most physicists subscribe to the "shut up and calculate" interpretation of QM. In practice it's clear what counts as a measurement, and it's hard to even see how one would go about testing these various interpretations. (There are a few experiments that have been done, in particular putting limits on the scale at which collapse theories could kick in.) So most of us think of it as a philosophical issue and don't worry too much about it. Some physicists (and plenty of philosophers) certainly do work & think about issues of interpretation, but I'm not too familiar with that area.

What it boils down to is this: the physical predictions of quantum theory are well-understood and well-tested. You can learn QM and you will understand the concepts of wavefunctions, incompatible observables, superpositions of different states, how they evolve in time, etc, and use this to understand how the world works. It's not easy but it's straightforward. But the philosophical interpretation -- eg, are things really random or is there some deterministic hidden structure? -- is another matter. There's lots of ideas and no way to say what the 'true' interpretation is. And there is a real difficulty that arises from the measurement problem: where exactly does the collapse behavior you get in macroscopic 'measurements' come from? Why don't we just see a weird superposition of readouts when we look at the display on a particle measuring device? (Or do we?) This is a deep and hard issue in which much thought has been poured without definite answers, AFAIK. The least confusing, least bizarre solutions IMO are spontaneous collapse theories -- where "big" quantum superpositions tend to collapse into a single value -- but these are not entirely problem-free and there's no reason to assume they're the right answer.
Does QFT 'ignore' the problem as well, or are the popular interpretations of QM simply erroneous and inaccurate? Also, I was reading about the vacuum states of various quantum fields and they seem to indicate that QFT generates a lot of infinities which arise out of the zero-point energy. Does E=mc² still govern the quantum vacuum of the various quantum fields?
There are other infinities which arise in QFT, of two types. The first are called 'infrared divergences' and show up when you consider particles of arbitrarily low energy (long wavelength). These are not "real" infinities per se, they are just an artifact that comes from assuming we have perfect detectors, which could never exist -- once you include the realities of a finite detector, the infinities go away.

The second type are much more problematic. They are called 'ultraviolet divergences' and come from the same place the infinite vacuum energy did -- from allowing arbitrarily small-wavelength (high-energy & high-frequency) particles. You could say they arise out of the vacuum in a way, because they only show up when you try to calculate loop diagrams, Feynman diagrams with loops in them, which represent the effect of vacuum polarization. Consider: the simplest process you can imagine is just a particle propagating through space, which has a Feynman diagram of just a single straight line. But because the quantum vacuum is this complicated things, we also have to include possibilities like a particle-antiparticle pair popping out of the vacuum, interacting with the propagating particle, and then annihilating again. Such a process is represented by a Feynman diagram with a loop in it. Now, the problem arises as before because the momenta of the particles in the loop can go arbitrarily high (arbitrarily low wavelength.) When you do the calculation for how much of a 'correction' arises from these vacuum diagrams, you get an infinite answer.

This was originally a huge disaster, until people discovered how to deal with it, through something called renormalization. At first glance this looks like some sort of bogus cheap trick. What you do is break apart the calculation in a particular way into two parts, one of which is infinite, the other finite. Then you say "well, we are going to redefine the mass of this particle so it's infinite, and cancels of the infinite vacuum correction, leaving a finite result." This is called renormalizing the mass of the particle. Now this sounds shady but there are ways to make it more rigorous. And it works, impressively -- you get consistent finite results, and the finite pieces of loop diagrams actually have been verified to incredible precision. Today, we understand this process & it's not viewed as problematic. It comes from the fact that QFT does not work at arbitrarily small distances but must be replaced by something else (eg, perhaps string theory.) At low energies, though, the effect of this small-distance physics is only to modify the parameters of our theory through renormalization.

E=mc^2 still sort of "applies" I guess. If you mean does Einstein's special relativity apply to QFT, yes, it certainly does. But E=mc^2, though famous, is actually a rather odd equation nowadays. In Einstein's time, it meant that the (apparent) mass of a particle increased as the particle moved faster (ie with more kinetic energy.) Mass and energy are the same thing. But today relativity is so much a part of our thought that we don't even talk about what Einstein called "mass" (the apparent mass) anymore, we just call that energy! When we say "mass" today we mean rest mass, the mass a particle would have sitting still. So ironically the famous equation is "wrong" using today definitions, or at least only applicable to stationary particles. For moving particles it should be instead E = gamma*m*c^2 , where gamma=1/sqrt(1-v^2/c^2) is a factor which is 1 for stationary particles, and keeps increasing the faster something moves.
 
By the way, there is a good Stanford Encylopedia of Philosophy article on the quantum measurement problem here:

http://plato.stanford.edu/entries/qt-measurement/

qwedsa said:
i think that is very similar to what i had pictured. when a certain part of the wave hits something (is measured) the wave collapses down to that point, all of the energy hits at that point, as if it was a particle all along.
Right. Keep in mind you can do measurements other than of position & energy, too, and you can do less precise measurements. For example, if I do a measurement which only tells me which 1-cm sized region the particle is in, the wave only collapses down to its part in that whole 1-cm sized region, not to a single point.

Or, suppose I prepare the electron in some atom in a state of some definite energy (an "orbital"), and then measure the exact position the electron. I can do so, and I will probably find it at some point where the wavefunction of that orbital was large. Doing so collapses the wavefunction onto that single position, of course. But, in atoms, the states of definite position are not the same as the states of definite energy -- energy & position are "incompatible" in an atom, just like position & momentum. So collapsing the wavefunction to a single point in position space causes it to go into a superposition over all the different orbitals. So if I then measure the energy of the particle, I'll likely something different than the energy I originally prepared it with.
perhaps i need to take linear algebra and differential equations before i try to understand this stuff though
To really understand it, yeah... you will just have a ghost of understanding otherwise. Linear algebra mainly, that's key. Diff eq is useful for solving certain problems, but not too useful for understanding what's going on -- for some quantum systems you can get away without it entirely, and for others all that really matters are the basic results on linearly independent solutions, and existence & uniqueness of solutions for given boundary conditions.
 
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Zorn:

Your explanations have definitely cleared up a lot of the conceptual dissonance that I was experiencing and I am going to continue to try to understand as much as I can, conceptually. Would developing a solid grasp of the concepts before I start doing any real physics make grasping the relationship between the maths and physics easier? Or does the understanding come naturally as a consequence of learning the maths?

Another issue that I am having with QFT is trying to understand how it relates to macroscopic fermionic systems. I know that quarks and gluons are intrinsic to QCD (if I am mistaken correct me) and that QED is described with leptons (or is that to simplified) and quarks and leptons are fermions, so does QFT apply only to forces or does it describe the physical matter which we experience?

I have read about Bose-Einstein stastistics (which govern the behavior of boson's right?) and Fermi-Dirac stastistics (which govern the behavior of fermions right?) and I have read about the Pauli Exclusion Principal which states that two fermions can never occupy the same quantum state which is the reason we observe condensed matter (is that the right way to say it?). My question is, exactly why are fermions stable? I know that QCD explains the Strong Force between quarks and gluons (3 colors and six flavors right?) which make up nuclei. Does the strong force strengthen as the distance between two quarks increases (if so, is it directly proportional to the square distance?) and how does the gluon interact with the quarks (other than the fact that the gluon carries the force, right?) during this interaction? If this is correct, does the problem of measurement apply to any of these situations? I am sure you are sick of discussing the problem of measurement but I want to have a good understanding of it.

In QED, the concept that I have is basically two leptons 'moving' parallel constantly exchanging photons (which is a quanta of QED right?) between each other which explains electromagnetism but how does this tie in with the Weak Force?

Maybe I just need to read more QFT -- I have a vague idea of how all of this works but it's easier to just ask you. If I have stated things wrong or asked incorrect questions, please make sure that I am aware. I don't like having the wrong ideas about things -- that's an endless string of incorrect ideas begins to emerge.

I have some weird idea (it's not a legitimate idea -- just an interesting possibility for my imagination) that randomly, some particles in my body will no longer remain stable and fly off into chaos.
 
Developing a vague, "conceptual" picture of QM should make learning actual QM a little easier, but not very much. The thing is, the concepts that you use when you actually learn QM are very different than the vague notions you get from reading popularized explanations. Knowing how the big overall picture works can sometimes be a help & guide you, but the hardest part is understanding how to connect the mathematics to its physical meaning & it won't help very much for that. Understanding of the big picture does come (through hard work & thought, not just naturally :) ) from solving problems & doing the physics... but it's one of the last things. At first you will just be using mathematics without really understanding what's going on, but gradually you will start to see the connections and eventually you will be able to turn your physics knowledge into these kind of popularized explanations for laypeople. It will take a while though.
Another issue that I am having with QFT is trying to understand how it relates to macroscopic fermionic systems. I know that quarks and gluons are intrinsic to QCD (if I am mistaken correct me) and that QED is described with leptons (or is that to simplified) and quarks and leptons are fermions, so does QFT apply only to forces or does it describe the physical matter which we experience?
Naa, matter is certainly included in quantum field theories, otherwise it wouldn't be worth much! The Standard Model contains all the matter particles (quarks and leptons) as well as the gauge bosons (photons, gluons, Ws, and Zs) and the Higgs boson; and all the known interactions (forces) between these various particles -- strong, electromagnetic, and weak.

QED and QCD are each parts of this overall theory. I'll outline QED to show you what's in a simple quantum field theory. QED is the theory of the electromagnetic interaction. So it contains the photon field which "mediates" the electromagnetic force, *and* fermionic matter fields, which represent the charged particles that feel the force. The simplest formulation of QED has just two fields, the photon field and the electron field -- but you can include any particles with electric charge, including quarks. QED has one vertex, or interaction, shown below:
QED_vertex.png

which represents the interaction of the photon with a charged particle, the electron in this picture. Depending on the directions you draw the lines, this vertx can be the abosorption of a photon by an electron or positron, the emission of a photon by an electron or positron, the annihilation of an electron/positron pair into a photon, or a photon creating/splitting into an electron/positron pair. If you include other charged matter fields, such as up quarks or muons, there is another vertex just like this one, but with a photon-up quark-up antiquark or a photon-muon-antimuon.
I have read about Bose-Einstein stastistics (which govern the behavior of boson's right? [yes -z]) and Fermi-Dirac stastistics (which govern the behavior of fermions right? [yes -z]) and I have read about the Pauli Exclusion Principal which states that two fermions can never occupy the same quantum state which is the reason we observe condensed matter (is that the right way to say it? [i'd say it's why matter seems to 'take up space' -z]). My question is, exactly why are fermions stable?
Most fermions aren't stable. The muon for example has a lifetime of about 2 microseconds. The only stable fermions are electrons, neutrinos, and up quarks. These are stable because there's nothing lighter they can decay into. Alternatively, when you look at the Standard Model interactions, they conserve lepton number, baryon number, and electric charge, among other things. Neutrinos are the lightest leptons (the lightest thing with lepton number) so they can't decay. Electrons are the lightest electrically charged particle, so they can't decay. Up quarks are the lightest baryonic particle, so they can't decay. Some down quarks stick around too, because a down-up-up (charge +1, no angular momentum) nucleon is more stable than an up-up-up nucleon (charge +2, with angular momentum.)
I know that QCD explains the Strong Force between quarks and gluons (3 colors and six flavors right? [of quarks yes, there are 8 gluons -z]) which make up nuclei. Does the strong force strengthen as the distance between two quarks increases (if so, is it directly proportional to the square distance? [not sure -z]) and how does the gluon interact with the quarks (other than the fact that the gluon carries the force, right?) during this interaction? If this is correct, does the problem of measurement apply to any of these situations? I am sure you are sick of discussing the problem of measurement but I want to have a good understanding of it.
Yes, the strong force strength increases as you try and separate colored objects like quarks. QCD contains three interaction vertices -- the first is exactly like the QED vertex with a gluon in place of the photon, a gluon-quark-antiquark vertex. Much of the strong force comes from this vertex, with quarks exchanging gluons, like electrons exchange photons. There are also three-gluon vertices (gluon-gluon-gluon) and four-gluon vertices.

The problem of measurement is not directly related to any particular interaction, it's general. It's the issue of how it is we see, say, an electron at a particular place in our particle detector, and not a superposition of various electons in various places.
In QED, the concept that I have is basically two leptons 'moving' parallel constantly exchanging photons (which is a quanta of QED right? [yes -z]) between each other which explains electromagnetism but how does this tie in with the Weak Force?
That's basically accurate. QED doesn't describe the weak force. The weak force is mediated by exchanges of W bosons and Z bosons, just like electromagnetism is mediated by exchanges of photons. Now the electromagnetic & weak forces have been unified (sort of, not really) but that's not part of QED; look up Glashow-Salam-Weinberg theory or "electroweak unification."

If you haven't yet, you should take a look at:

http://www.particleadventure.org/
http://hands-on-cern.physto.se/hoc_v21en/index.html
 
I haven't read through all the replies yet, will do and digest later.

But for now:

zorn said:
Hmm, there's no intentionality involved....


...Perhaps consciousness is involved somehow and we ourselves fall into one or the other subspaces....

It's very confusing. But I don't think it necessarily implies any problem with metaphysical reductionism -- some plausible theories of measurement, such as those with spontaneous decoherence, seem like ordinary reductionist theories.

--zorn

Any explanation which requires "consciousness" or a final level where one "sees" the single classical result (rather than the superposition of states of the larger entangled system - thing to be measured + measuring device) - those are the ones that you're going to have problems fitting into a reductionist framework.
 
^^^ I suppose so. To me, though, the question of whether a theory is 'reductionist' doesn't seem particulary important; the significant thing is whether a theory is complete & well-defined. ie, does it make clear predictions in any situation without any vagueness, or does it rely on vague upper-level concepts we don't really understand? You're right, though, that explanations involving consciousness don't meet this standard either. My point earlier was the QM itself does not imply a non-reductionist framework -- one can easily interpret it in a perfectly reductionist manner.
 
zorn said:
^^^ I suppose so. To me, though, the question of whether a theory is 'reductionist' doesn't seem particulary important; the significant thing is whether a theory is complete & well-defined. ie, does it make clear predictions in any situation without any vagueness, or does it rely on vague upper-level concepts we don't really understand? You're right, though, that explanations involving consciousness don't meet this standard either. My point earlier was the QM itself does not imply a non-reductionist framework -- one can easily interpret it in a perfectly reductionist manner.

Surely the ideal of the scientific method is reduction, and that goes hand-in-hand with ideas of how "complete" or "well-defined" a theory is (I am assuming you are using those terms in a common sense rather than formal way).

All scientific theories have been reductionist, one might say radically so, and the fact that one of the possible interpretations of QM is not seems rather important to me...
 
I think it's really powerful..

Explain this one for me empiricists... I would lead to gather that I am God, or at least a Quetzalcoatal from it.. or something.

I was born at 2:03 AM UT 10:03 Ohio 9:03 Indiana. Anyone into the occultist ideas in any way might have those numbers jump out at them.

My ex girlfriend and I broke up (and the only reason I mention this is because of the amount of unavoidable drama/hardship that happened... I'd have to take that story to SLR and it has to do with diseases.. so yea.. maybe i could elaborate, but no) on 9/3/2006, the date which held the most novelty, and which marked an elbow into the steepest descent into novelty that our relationship had seen (according to the most "accurate" timewave model). The whole thing was very unexpected.. but it's like I could see it coming.. or more.. I could see a big gap.

9/3/2006 happens to be EXACTLY 2300 days from December 21st, 2012. I wasn't aware.

I'm well aware how loony this sounds ;)

Isn't it wyrd?

23 is a number that I just started seeing some years back, without really "getting into" anything dealing with it to begin with- I know I read some stuff.. on some "new age" concepts... and perhaps ran across some info on the number's synchronicity.

I later found out that I was born at 10:03 in ohio, which was 9:03 in Indiana, which is 2:03 at the prime meridian.


Now... I know.. numbers are numbers... but don't things fill a pattern. If it is our pattern, it is nature's pattern. Mythos and Chronos might be actually two poles of the same magnet. Why not?

It makes perfect sense to me, and I have my own experience to prove it to me.


(oh yea, my ex ended all contact with me on 2233 days remaining in the count)

coincidentally I just started getting back into all this 2012 stuff... and bought Daniel Pinchbeck's new book.



Hmm.


Alpha- once again- I respect your knowledge and the feild you have chosen, but I have to disagree with your statement that quantum mechanics is a good example of an empirical science. With that stuff you're dealing with more of an idea, than anything... but perhaps you are creating your results simply with your thoughts?

Just like quantum mechanics doesn't really have a model for "time", you know? At least I heard this somewhere... the quantum mechanical model for "time" is replaced by movement.



just throwing a little bit of wyrdness out there.


oh yea- she was from the 23rd county of her state, and lived right near a road called 23. blah.
 
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acausal said:
but I have to disagree with your statement that quantum mechanics is a good example of an empirical science. With that stuff you're dealing with more of an idea, than anything... but perhaps you are creating your results simply with your thoughts?
That's because most people don't get past the part of books on quantum mechanics which talks about the double slit experiment, as this thread originated about. There's a HUGE amount of quantum mechanics which essentially comes down to doing bags and bags of experiments. Smashing particles together, creating high power electromagnets, cooling things to near zero, bouncing lasers off things, timing pulsar signals, looking at light spectra.

The vast majority of actually doing work with quantum systems or describing them can (and IS) done totally aside from "Woah, dude, it's like.... your mind creates the universe.... I am so baked right now!" When you're measuring energies and calculating probability distrubitions, the philisophical side of things is pretty irrelevent.

I personally don't consider a series of electrical pulses in a large detector due to ion nucleation to be 'studying an idea' or my thoughts creating time and reality, it's because something just went through the detector! Yes, it's important to have a sense of philosophy for these things, but it's also important when to stop and just call a spade a spade. Would you call the shock you receive from jamming a fork into the nearest electrical outlet 'your thoughts creating reality' ? No and I'm of a vaguely similar opinion about most of quantum theory, including string theory.
 
Oh no--- I'm not that baked man-- admittedly a little high as type. I still know my place... and somewhat my function.

The stuff you guys do excites me.. honestly. But maybe reality is a choice? It is what you pay attention to. On my level, reality is created in my mind(not to say my 'mind' is local to my brain--- but then, yada). Everything I do read that happens to do with quantum mechanics just further "solidifies" (if you can even call it that... I guess it's both that and whatever can be different) my conception of reality. Perhaps it should be a hint though, that science and age old concepts are taking an approach somewhat like that of that Buddhist symbol, with the wheel. they are but seperate spokes of the same wheel, but both are spokes?

It's hard to see things as one, when there are always other possible ways of seeing it.
 
what year are you by the way? what kind of work do you do? pm me if you want.. just curious.
 
"But maybe reality is a choice? It is what you pay attention to. On my level, reality is created in my mind?"

So when people get hit by cars, shot by bullets, and every other "accident" its really just a poorly constructed internal reality? They just weren't thinking right? Sickness is ONLY a mindset?

We aren't god's, we can alter our INTERPRETATION of reality with our mind, but alter the physical makeup of reality with thought? ha...
 
acausal said:
what year are you by the way? what kind of work do you do? pm me if you want.. just curious.
1st year PhD in theoretical physics, did 4 years before this one. Zorn's 3rd or 4th year PhD, I'm not sure.
Psychedelic Gleam said:
We aren't god's, we can alter our INTERPRETATION of reality with our mind, but alter the physical makeup of reality with thought? ha...
Pretty much what I was thinking too. If you get hit by a car and break your leg you can 'think' away the pain a lot, but you won't heal your leg.
 
acausal said:
Oh no--- I'm not that baked man-- admittedly a little high as type. I still know my place... and somewhat my function.

The stuff you guys do excites me.. honestly. But maybe reality is a choice? It is what you pay attention to. On my level, reality is created in my mind(not to say my 'mind' is local to my brain--- but then, yada). Everything I do read that happens to do with quantum mechanics just further "solidifies" (if you can even call it that... I guess it's both that and whatever can be different) my conception of reality. Perhaps it should be a hint though, that science and age old concepts are taking an approach somewhat like that of that Buddhist symbol, with the wheel. they are but seperate spokes of the same wheel, but both are spokes?

It's hard to see things as one, when there are always other possible ways of seeing it.

What exactly about 'quantum mechanics' reinforces your 'conception of reality'?
 
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