DHCuser
Bluelighter
So for the first few weeks of summer I was over using tramadol. Firstly during exam times I was using small amounts daily to revise and concentrate because I got foggy headed without a couple. Then after my last exam I ran out and stopped.
The next day I was left at university for a couple of weeks with NOTHING to do, and I just felt awful and down and wanted them (my first "physical" type withdrawal I've had). So I ordered more (stupid). I got through about 60 of the 90 (50mg) in about 2 weeks. I wasn't using every day but was every 2 days or 3 at the most, and when I was it was like 700mg (spaced out). I figured that when I got home I'd have 30 left to ween myself off it. I didn't so much ween myself off as take 2 the Saturday I got home and then realise I didn't need any Sunday (apparantly using large doses every 2 or 3 days prevented physical dependence more so than using small amounts every day
). I didn't seem to have any physical dependence at all. However I used 13 all at once one day and then the remaining 10 I had left all at once about 4 days after that and now I'm out and I'm SO BORED. I even went back to CWE dihydrocodeine (hence name, the only drug I used before I discovered tramadol) about 3 days ago and hated it. It was terrible compared to the tramadol and didn't last long enough for me, won't be using it again.
So anyway (sorry for ranting on) I get through my days perfectly fine without tramadol but when my mind isn't occupied I keep thinking how great it'd be to have more, and even consider ordering more (something I NEVER thought I'd do whilst at home). As of yet I haven't. But my question is, is this what psychological dependence is? Will it disappear after a few months of abstinence or is it something you have forever once you embark upon regular use of an addictive drug? If not, it sure is horrible. In ways I think it is worse than physical withdrawal. My guess is, physical dependence is using to feel "normal" and avoid withdrawal symptoms and psychological dependence comes earlier and is used to chase the euphoric effects whilst still being able to feel "normal" without them, preceeding psychogical dependence. Is this correct?
The next day I was left at university for a couple of weeks with NOTHING to do, and I just felt awful and down and wanted them (my first "physical" type withdrawal I've had). So I ordered more (stupid). I got through about 60 of the 90 (50mg) in about 2 weeks. I wasn't using every day but was every 2 days or 3 at the most, and when I was it was like 700mg (spaced out). I figured that when I got home I'd have 30 left to ween myself off it. I didn't so much ween myself off as take 2 the Saturday I got home and then realise I didn't need any Sunday (apparantly using large doses every 2 or 3 days prevented physical dependence more so than using small amounts every day
). I didn't seem to have any physical dependence at all. However I used 13 all at once one day and then the remaining 10 I had left all at once about 4 days after that and now I'm out and I'm SO BORED. I even went back to CWE dihydrocodeine (hence name, the only drug I used before I discovered tramadol) about 3 days ago and hated it. It was terrible compared to the tramadol and didn't last long enough for me, won't be using it again.So anyway (sorry for ranting on) I get through my days perfectly fine without tramadol but when my mind isn't occupied I keep thinking how great it'd be to have more, and even consider ordering more (something I NEVER thought I'd do whilst at home). As of yet I haven't. But my question is, is this what psychological dependence is? Will it disappear after a few months of abstinence or is it something you have forever once you embark upon regular use of an addictive drug? If not, it sure is horrible. In ways I think it is worse than physical withdrawal. My guess is, physical dependence is using to feel "normal" and avoid withdrawal symptoms and psychological dependence comes earlier and is used to chase the euphoric effects whilst still being able to feel "normal" without them, preceeding psychogical dependence. Is this correct?
