SangerRainsford
Bluelighter
- Joined
- Feb 16, 2011
- Messages
- 1,459
I have a question, of sorts, in regards to what someone I know supposedly did pretty recently.
I'll call him Steve for anonymity reasons (I'm aware many will assume I'm bs'in here, but whatever I can't change what people feel).
So, Steve used to be extremely into drugs, and was actually addicted to painkillers for a bit. He's since gotten clean (he still uses w/o a doubt, but not in the addicted/dependent manner he used to. I'm unsure exactly how much / what he's using, but it's definitely in the 'normal/recreational' area and not remotely where he was before).
AAAaaaand here's the 'trip', and my q on this situation.
He was with some others, and the plan was to just get high-as-hell. Money/availability was a non-issue. They acquired sizable amounts of both oxycodone and crack, and proceeded to just hang around using at whatever pace they chose (it was all just shared, people used as they felt like it).
Now, here's what I just cannot wrap my head around - apparently the oxy did practically nothing for him (I thought this was a "speedball", but supposedly the oxy just gave him nausea and not much else, regardless of how much he took), and just as / more surprisingly, he said that the entire situation was a complete let-down, and that he would've preferred to have just gotten some beers!!!
I guess I thought this was some of the most guaranteed "euphoria" one can buy (generally speaking), so how the hell could someone have, in essence, a situation wherein oxy / crack were literally on-tap, and feel that they just wasted their time?
/don't get me wrong, I'm far happier to've been told this than to find he's using heavy/addictively again, it's just that this doesn't make sense, I'd disbelieve this if I could, but there's really very little chance (or reason..) he'd have to lie; actually, he's the one who told me, it was just as a story and it's something I wouldn't have even known about had he not brought it up.
I'll call him Steve for anonymity reasons (I'm aware many will assume I'm bs'in here, but whatever I can't change what people feel).
So, Steve used to be extremely into drugs, and was actually addicted to painkillers for a bit. He's since gotten clean (he still uses w/o a doubt, but not in the addicted/dependent manner he used to. I'm unsure exactly how much / what he's using, but it's definitely in the 'normal/recreational' area and not remotely where he was before).
AAAaaaand here's the 'trip', and my q on this situation.
He was with some others, and the plan was to just get high-as-hell. Money/availability was a non-issue. They acquired sizable amounts of both oxycodone and crack, and proceeded to just hang around using at whatever pace they chose (it was all just shared, people used as they felt like it).
Now, here's what I just cannot wrap my head around - apparently the oxy did practically nothing for him (I thought this was a "speedball", but supposedly the oxy just gave him nausea and not much else, regardless of how much he took), and just as / more surprisingly, he said that the entire situation was a complete let-down, and that he would've preferred to have just gotten some beers!!!
I guess I thought this was some of the most guaranteed "euphoria" one can buy (generally speaking), so how the hell could someone have, in essence, a situation wherein oxy / crack were literally on-tap, and feel that they just wasted their time?
/don't get me wrong, I'm far happier to've been told this than to find he's using heavy/addictively again, it's just that this doesn't make sense, I'd disbelieve this if I could, but there's really very little chance (or reason..) he'd have to lie; actually, he's the one who told me, it was just as a story and it's something I wouldn't have even known about had he not brought it up.
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