Need help with NMR interpretation of 3-FPM

[Str]

So I just analyzed 3-fluoro-phenmetrazine sold by a self-proclaimed "official" vendor based in the UK. This batch was more crystalline than previous and produced, according to some testers, a different and weaker high.

Now from what I have gathered this is Diphenidine. But that seems odd as it is supposed to be a dissociative?

From analysis;

Purity (LC-UV): 97.46 %
Mass (LC/MS, mz+1): 266.2 (also small peak at 567.4, adduct?)

NMR: https://infotomb.com/2g0ey.pdf

I'm afraid I can't share .fid and source-files as they contain sensitive data. If you have any questions about the spectrum, just ask. Solvent is DMSO-d6.

* Mass is consistent with Diphenidine (265.18) and not that with 3-fluoro-phenmetrazine (195.23).
* 19F spectra is empty so no fluorine atom is present.
* Contains 10 aromatic hydrogens which is consistent with Diphenidine, Lefetamine and similar drugs.
* Has a total of 24 hydrogens which is consistent with Diphenidine HCl (peak at 3.1 is probably methanol)
* Has 14 carbons, compared to 13 in Diphenidine. Could enantiomers cause a split?
* One hydrogen at 11.42 ppm, indicating a tertiary amine (Ephenedine for example, has two)

So everything seems to say this is actually Diphenidine. But why is it then a stimulant and not a dissociative?

I welcome any input.

 

[pr0d1gy]

Spectra appears to be diphenidine. Probably would not have run it in DMSO. In terms of subjective effects, I have no clue.

 

[sekio]

Diphenidine looks like the kind of compound that would have some affinity for monoamine transporters.

I know related NMDA antagonists like PCP, MXE, and 3-MeO-PCP are all stimulating at lower doses, I have heard that ephenidine is a stimulating chemical, so it seems to me diphenidine should be too.

Most of that evidence is a smoking gun towards it being diphenidine that you have.