• Philosophy and Spirituality
    Welcome Guest
    Posting Rules Bluelight Rules
    Threads of Note Socialize
  • P&S Moderators: JackARoe | Cheshire_Kat

Moral Relativism versus Universal Morality

well if you aren't going to follow Kant in his objective morality then who is to be the judge of human action? God? What if there is no God? no morality then. We have the golden rule, which is pragmatic at best. Morality is relative, culturally based and something stupid people make themselves feel better about. It's all about survival.
 
Maybe you should see the first post I made, as I'm against objective morality.
Humans are to judge.
I don't know if you're aware of the notion that God (the premise of such) cheapens ethics/morality.
If you're interested look into Hitchens or something, if not I won't be phased.
I've already stated my opinion, and I'm not here to try to convert anyones thoughts.
 
you don't need a judge to have a wrong.

look at arguments about harming the dead or the ignorant for more info.
 
Oh but you do.
If there is nobody to judge the action, it just is.
It's humans that create right and wrong, if we're not here to say something is either of them, that something would be neither.
 
If there were no universal morality at the instinctual level then humanity as a species would have not survived the evolutionary process. It's more than just social upbringing, it's something that's in us. Empathy is built in. We have mirror neurons and a limbic system that let us learn and react from observing others as if we were the ones experiencing it, which includes their joys and their pains. Social rules determine how you respond to what your empathy is telling you, but it doesn't change the fact that we are a socially empathic species.

In a life or death situation where a child is in danger, most human beings will react to save the child; and if they didn't, they will reflect upon it with guilt. This has been proven across many studies, same with a baby's cry. It annoys the hell out of us because we are compelled to do something about it.

The meanings we apply to these instinctual experiences are subjective and that's where the idea of subjective morality comes from, but the underlying human experiences that shape the morality are objective and built in.
 
^yup

Oh but you do.
If there is nobody to judge the action, it just is.
It's humans that create right and wrong, if we're not here to say something is either of them, that something would be neither.

if we weren't here then there would be no action to begin with. your line of reasoning is self referential and pointless. how about we rephrase, can you harm someone who is and will ever be unaware of it?

if you sleep with someone elses spouse, and you keep the secret forever, is that person harmed?
if you volunteer assisting a blind person with their fruit stand, and skim the profits, are they harmed?
if you keep a mentally disabled person locked in a basement, not allowing for their mind to develop in any way, use them for sex, are they harmed?

there are plenty of examples in which there is no judge, but plenty of wrong. things do not become wrong only when people are caught, that is a logical fallacy. these aren't culturally sensitive neither.
 
Last edited:
It's not about our ACTIONS, it's about our JUDGEMENT of an action. My line of reasoning is neither self referential nor pointless.
Take a feline toying with the animal it just caught, for example-

How about we go to your notion of awareness.
In the first example, nobody is hurt. In the other two, people are hurt.

There is a judge in the examples you gave. People are aware of their actions, and judge them.

'things do not become wrong only when people are caught, that is a logical fallacy'
I agree.

Let's take someone with no short term memory, for example.
This person is sitting between 2 locks doors, with 2 piles of keys.
It is his duty to give a key to anyone who wants one.
He has seen that behind one door is something 'wrong' (rape dungeon, someone with a weapon, whatever floats your boat), whilst the other door has something good (money, women, drugs, whatever)
He gives someone the key to the bad door, is this wrong?
How about instead of giving people the option with a key, he has to physically lead blind people through a door, is this more wrong?


How about someone else, fully functioning, witnesses all of this. They sit there and make no effort to stop people from going into the wrong door. Is their lack of action somehow wrong?
What if they encourage people to go through the wrong door. Is this wrong?
What if they get confused, trying to save people, but direct them to the wrong door mistakenly?
Does intention come into play, or is it all based on outcome?
If that is the case, awareness of the outcome is needed for something to be harmful, such as the infidelity of your first example.
If that is not the case, what ranks higher? Do good intentions excuse bad outcomes? If bad intentions have good outcomes, is there any bad?


What if someone is not aware of their AIDS and spreads it?


Anyway, I'm not too interested in the whole subject, but you know I'd read your reply bb
 
If there were no universal morality at the instinctual level then humanity as a species would have not survived the evolutionary process. It's more than just social upbringing, it's something that's in us. Empathy is built in. We have mirror neurons and a limbic system that let us learn and react from observing others as if we were the ones experiencing it, which includes their joys and their pains. Social rules determine how you respond to what your empathy is telling you, but it doesn't change the fact that we are a socially empathic species.
but as you said: it is natural, it is part of our specific species and relative to the ecosystems of earth, not universal.

could moral principles from here be extended to life on another planet? to multidimensional life, or life on larger or smaller space and/or time scales? to life evolved out of the plasma of a nebula or star? (technically, we evolved out of stardust...)

it really all depends on the angles and definitions... if i were to try to construct a universal morality... it would be based on reducing unnecessary pain, and increasing joy. i think that could probably be extended to those other life forms in some way or another. but i don't know. i only know my own species/planet.
 
It's not about our ACTIONS, it's about our JUDGEMENT of an action. My line of reasoning is neither self referential nor pointless.
Take a feline toying with the animal it just caught, for example-

I don't understand this example. how can a cat choose not to torture its prey? the morality of humans do not apply to non-humans.

How about we go to your notion of awareness.
In the first example, nobody is hurt. In the other two, people are hurt.

please explain how you differentiate them.

There is a judge in the examples you gave. People are aware of their actions, and judge them.

No, there's no judge in these examples, since no one will ever know, aside from those committing the acts.

Let's take someone with no short term memory, for example.
This person is sitting between 2 locks doors, with 2 piles of keys.
It is his duty to give a key to anyone who wants one.
He has seen that behind one door is something 'wrong' (rape dungeon, someone with a weapon, whatever floats your boat), whilst the other door has something good (money, women, drugs, whatever)
He gives someone the key to the bad door, is this wrong?
How about instead of giving people the option with a key, he has to physically lead blind people through a door, is this more wrong?

similarly to the animals question, morality doesn't apply when there's no capacity to choose otherwise.

How about someone else, fully functioning, witnesses all of this. They sit there and make no effort to stop people from going into the wrong door. Is their lack of action somehow wrong?
yes. non action is just as responsible as action. (see pete singer and the drowning child)

What if they encourage people to go through the wrong door. Is this wrong?
of course, they create unnecessary harm.

What if they get confused, trying to save people, but direct them to the wrong door mistakenly?
Does intention come into play, or is it all based on outcome?
If that is the case, awareness of the outcome is needed for something to be harmful, such as the infidelity of your first example.

Incorrect. Intentions do factor in, as does capacity. These by no means results that awareness is required for the act to be wrong.
If that is not the case, what ranks higher? Do good intentions excuse bad outcomes? If bad intentions have good outcomes, is there any bad?

For both of these the answers vary on the case. The objective morality i refer to are the very fundamental kind.


What if someone is not aware of their AIDS and spreads it?

same as your door example


Anyway, I'm not too interested in the whole subject, but you know I'd read your reply bb

That's ok. Morality is not abitrarily defined, which is what those who espouse pure relativism are essentially arguing.

Think about the dead, why do we honour wills?
 
I don't understand this example. how can a cat choose not to torture its prey? the morality of humans do not apply to non-humans.
Morality is morality.
First you're telling me it's objective, now you're telling me it only applies to humans.
I have experienced first hand, from my own cat, that 'lower order animals' are capable of making decisions/choosing their actions (and being influenced)


please explain how you differentiate them
I differentiate them because in the latter 2 examples, people are directly affected. Someone loses money, or their freedom.
In the first example, nobody is harmed. Nothing is lost.


No, there's no judge in these examples, since no one will ever know, aside from those committing the acts.
Exactly, the people who know/committed the act are the judge. They judge their own actions. Now that we've been made aware, we judge their actions too.


similarly to the animals question, morality doesn't apply when there's no capacity to choose otherwise.
There is still a capacity for choice, it's just the capacity for context/understanding is limited.


yes. non action is just as responsible as action. (see pete singer and the drowning child)
Neither you nor Singer have addressed how


of course, they create unnecessary harm.
There is a difference between influence and control, though.


Incorrect. Intentions do factor in, as does capacity. These by no means results that awareness is required for the act to be wrong.
Okay, so if both intention and outcome are factors, perfect morality cannot exist.
People can only understand the immediate consequences of their actions.
AND, what about the very nature of existence?
We all interact with one another, so for example, if I were to punch someone in the face it could stop them from getting hit by a car a minute later.
If the driver had not found his wife cheating on him, he would have not got in the car at that time.
If the driver next to him didn't finish his coffee he would have been in a different place, and so on and so forth.
Just like basic algebra, we are limited to measuring one variable at a time.


For both of these the answers vary on the case. The objective morality i refer to are the very fundamental kind.
What is this fundamental objective morality you speak of, kind sir?


That's ok. Morality is not abitrarily defined, which is what those who espouse pure relativism are essentially arguing.
I don't know how relativism=arbitrary, but if you could expand on that thought I'd be willing to engage in a discussion about it.


Think about the dead, why do we honour wills?
I don't know what that has to do with the objective/subjective discussion, but if I were to answer it, I would say something along the lines of respecting the wishes of the person who lived, irrespective of their present existence.
 
Last edited:
it's difficult to follow your post without some semblance of what you are responding to with each point. just fyi.

the point i was getting at with wills is that to break the terms of a will, the dead person's INTERESTS are being harmed. this example is to serve the argument that a harmed person does not have to be aware of the harm for it to be wrong.

fundamental morality is like "do not cause harm to others unprovoked", but where that line of provocation lies is subjective.

relativism means: morality is based on context/culture, now if that culture was developed on a common humanity, it is objective in nature. if not, then it leads to arbitrariness, where anything can be considered right/wrong. if that isn't arbitrary, i don't know what is.
 
If you would refer to my spiel about imperfect morality and the inability to see past the immediate consequences, it is all a matter of ones intention to harm.

And how is it that provocation warrants wrongdoing?

Again, I am quite confused by your stance.
Your example of relativism is quite clearly shown throughout the world by differences in culture/society.
 
Okay, so if both intention and outcome are factors, perfect morality cannot exist.
People can only understand the immediate consequences of their actions.
AND, what about the very nature of existence?
We all interact with one another, so for example, if I were to punch someone in the face it could stop them from getting hit by a car a minute later.
If the driver had not found his wife cheating on him, he would have not got in the car at that time.
If the driver next to him didn't finish his coffee he would have been in a different place, and so on and so forth.
Just like basic algebra, we are limited to measuring one variable at a time.

sorry, you are still taking judgement as a given. as long as you do, you are missing the point. there can be a wrong without judgement. this is what i was illustrating with my three examples.

I differentiate them because in the latter 2 examples, people are directly affected. Someone loses money, or their freedom.
In the first example, nobody is harmed. Nothing is lost.

how do you quantify these harms? in none of the cases is the victim aware. do you really think the partner of a cheating spouse is not harmed?

your argument is absolutely self referential. you are saying that morality is subjective because there must be judgement. but that judgement is another way of saying it is subjective. so, "it is subjective because it is subjective", is your case. sorry, that isn't good enough to make such a claim.
 
The meanings we apply to these instinctual experiences are subjective and that's where the idea of subjective morality comes from, but the underlying human experiences that shape the morality are objective and built in.

I agree with the part about built in empathy etc which causes us to feel the feelings that are usually considered some kind of "moral feelings" (don't know if you say that in english, i'm german and often only know the german terms when it comes to philosophy). Or let's say i agree with that for this argument, because i don't think all of those feelings are really built in, and that Nietzsche really has a point when he states that some of them have developed later. But i have difficulties with the use of "objective" in this context. The degree of empathy and the feelings resulting from it seem to differ slightly for each individual (in my experience) and also, "objective" seems to suggest that there are some kind of moral values, that are just there (in the world) independent from the individual (and these values would be quite strange, i'm with Mackie when it comes to that). The fact that most of us would say, that it is wrong to use a newborn as a baseball, isn't enough to make it objective. And when it comes to more complex moral problems, it seems possible that there isn't even a majority in favour of "wrong"/"right" when they express their "moral feelings" (intuitons?) regarding that situation. Of course you could say that some are just not interpreting their intuitons correctly or that a situation, where you don't seem to come to an agreement just isn't "clear" enough (meaning not enough is known about the circumstances etc to make a decision), but i don't believe that's enough to explain all those differences in moral judgement.

Did i make any sense? I hope so.
 
you are missing the point. there can be a wrong without judgement.
I think there has been some confusion, really.
Morals are an artefact of humans. They are a projection of the mind and do not exist without it.

How can a morality be objective? It would have to be a morality of outcomes and not their causes, as the only moral object that is objective is the action.
The consequences unfold over time and so are not objective in the same way that the immediate material change is.


in none of the cases is the victim aware.
But they are affected, irrespective of their awareness. The spouse is not.


Do you think different people have differing views on what is right/wrong?


I probably am missing the point, but I'm still failing to see anything objective (other than reality itself)
 
ok guys

we got the objective morality of Kant's categorical imperative
we have utilitarianism (should we kill 1 baby to save 1 million babies?)
we have the Golden rule (treat others as you would want to be treated)
we have pragmatic morality (treat others so they treat you nicely as well) (less noble)
Leibniz monadology shows that all things in this world strive for the best possible outcome and path of least resistance, forming another moral framework in a way.
Then you have the libertarian - do what you want so long as it doesn't harm others
and Roman idea of freedom - do as thou wilt with no consequences.

you can argue between these but they've all been covered and more. What gets me is the utilitarianism. Morals are relative in a sense but Kant is right in that we experience the world in the same way presumably and as such have empathy, providing our natural moral framework.

There's a mix somewhere that fits but i'm not sure what it is
 
yeah whoops, i quoted the wrong drowning child analogy. i was after the one where the person stands to win an inheritance if an annoying little cousin/sibling dies. the comparitive example involve actively drowning him in a bath by force as compared with seeing the boy slip and hit his head in the bath and drowning without intervention.

i forget who posed it, but the argument is whether the action/non action are distinct in any way.

I think there has been some confusion, really.
Morals are an artefact of humans. They are a projection of the mind and do not exist without it.

How can a morality be objective? It would have to be a morality of outcomes and not their causes, as the only moral object that is objective is the action.
The consequences unfold over time and so are not objective in the same way that the immediate material change is.
Funny, i remember years ago posing your same argument on bluelight. I have since done a degree and touched upon this kind of stuff in first year philo. It's pretty eye opening, i tell ya. I admit it has been a while and i haven't been explaning myself very well.

You agreed earlier that it doesn't take being caught for a wrong to have been done, yet you are intrinsicly linking wrongness with judgement. It certainly does follow by this rationale that if no one ever knows of the harm, victim included, then there is no wrong.

But they are affected, irrespective of their awareness. The spouse is not.
How, exactly are they affected? How do you quantify this? Also, how is a broken committment to a spouse not a loss?


Do you think different people have differing views on what is right/wrong?


I probably am missing the point, but I'm still failing to see anything objective (other than reality itself)

Exploration of harm was the first part of my study in morality. How to really define it is an interesting endeavour, and it isn't as simple as it sounds. This is why i keep bringing it up.

the variety of systems are expanded a bit in RT's post.

ok guys

we got the objective morality of Kant's categorical imperative
we have utilitarianism (should we kill 1 baby to save 1 million babies?)
we have the Golden rule (treat others as you would want to be treated)
we have pragmatic morality (treat others so they treat you nicely as well) (less noble)
Leibniz monadology shows that all things in this world strive for the best possible outcome and path of least resistance, forming another moral framework in a way.
Then you have the libertarian - do what you want so long as it doesn't harm others
and Roman idea of freedom - do as thou wilt with no consequences.

you can argue between these but they've all been covered and more. What gets me is the utilitarianism. Morals are relative in a sense but Kant is right in that we experience the world in the same way presumably and as such have empathy, providing our natural moral framework.

There's a mix somewhere that fits but i'm not sure what it is

Yet these have a common human experience at their basis where basic concepts like self preservation are built upon.

what? a dead person has no interests.

Why not?
 
^which is what Kant was saying in his groundwork for the metaphysics of morals. I agree to an extent but utilitarianism throws a wrench in that theory.
 
Funny, i remember years ago posing your same argument on bluelight. I have since done a degree and touched upon this kind of stuff in first year philo. It's pretty eye opening, i tell ya. I admit it has been a while and i haven't been explaning myself very well.

Out of curiosity: Are you an ethicist by training? Or just a philosopher-at-large?
 
Top