Hello,
I have a question regarding "doctor shopping" in the state of Florida. In Florida, the statue for "doctor shopping" reads as follows: "To withhold information from a practitioner from whom the person seeks to obtain a controlled substance or a prescription for a controlled substance that the person making the request has received a controlled substance or a prescription for a controlled substance of like therapeutic use from another practitioner within the previous 30 days. [Florida Statute Section 893.13(7)(a)8]."
Hypothetically speaking, let's say a person decides to visit the Emergency Room of a different hospital each week for one month -- again, hypothetically speaking. The person has a legitimate, observable medical condition (not some phantom aches and pains): a protruding, impacted, abscessed wisdom tooth that's infected and has a giant black hole of a cavity. The patient is visibly in pain and describes his symptoms to a tee, but never makes a request for any specific pain medication. He is given a 5-day supply of a narcotic pain medication during each individual visit nonetheless. Each time the patient runs out of said medication, he returns to the ER.
According to the statue, one of the conditions that constitutes "doctor shopping" is that the patient "makes a request" for a controlled substance for one that was already given within the 30-day time range, but the patient never requested anything. Neither did he make mention of previous narcotic pain meds. that were prescribed to him. He simply came in and described a set of symptoms to the doctor whilst grimacing in pain, nothing more. Has a crime been committed/can the person be convicted of "doctor shopping" since he never made the request to obtain anything? If yes/no, why exactly? I asked this on another forum and most people agreed that it did infact constitute "doctor shopping" because the fact that the patient showed up in pain was an "implicit request" for pain medication, but the statue specifically states and seems to be focused on controlled pain meds; surely, there were other "non-controlled/non-narcotic" pain meds that could have been prescribed, such as prescription grade NSAIDs like Toradol, Motrin 800 or Naproxen, Neurontin, or Tramadol.
I ask because SWIM's situation is very similar to the scenario described above and is afraid that he will be called out on it and/or confronted by an ER physician -- or worse -- if he makes just one more visit to even the same hospital complaining of the same ailment in the upcoming future. SWIM does not have a regular PCP nor health insurance... and has but one traffic ticket (a clean record); the last thing SWIM wants is to be considered a felon at such young age. Is SWIM in the clear?
Thank You
I have a question regarding "doctor shopping" in the state of Florida. In Florida, the statue for "doctor shopping" reads as follows: "To withhold information from a practitioner from whom the person seeks to obtain a controlled substance or a prescription for a controlled substance that the person making the request has received a controlled substance or a prescription for a controlled substance of like therapeutic use from another practitioner within the previous 30 days. [Florida Statute Section 893.13(7)(a)8]."
Hypothetically speaking, let's say a person decides to visit the Emergency Room of a different hospital each week for one month -- again, hypothetically speaking. The person has a legitimate, observable medical condition (not some phantom aches and pains): a protruding, impacted, abscessed wisdom tooth that's infected and has a giant black hole of a cavity. The patient is visibly in pain and describes his symptoms to a tee, but never makes a request for any specific pain medication. He is given a 5-day supply of a narcotic pain medication during each individual visit nonetheless. Each time the patient runs out of said medication, he returns to the ER.
According to the statue, one of the conditions that constitutes "doctor shopping" is that the patient "makes a request" for a controlled substance for one that was already given within the 30-day time range, but the patient never requested anything. Neither did he make mention of previous narcotic pain meds. that were prescribed to him. He simply came in and described a set of symptoms to the doctor whilst grimacing in pain, nothing more. Has a crime been committed/can the person be convicted of "doctor shopping" since he never made the request to obtain anything? If yes/no, why exactly? I asked this on another forum and most people agreed that it did infact constitute "doctor shopping" because the fact that the patient showed up in pain was an "implicit request" for pain medication, but the statue specifically states and seems to be focused on controlled pain meds; surely, there were other "non-controlled/non-narcotic" pain meds that could have been prescribed, such as prescription grade NSAIDs like Toradol, Motrin 800 or Naproxen, Neurontin, or Tramadol.
I ask because SWIM's situation is very similar to the scenario described above and is afraid that he will be called out on it and/or confronted by an ER physician -- or worse -- if he makes just one more visit to even the same hospital complaining of the same ailment in the upcoming future. SWIM does not have a regular PCP nor health insurance... and has but one traffic ticket (a clean record); the last thing SWIM wants is to be considered a felon at such young age. Is SWIM in the clear?
Thank You
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