I wonder if there is any PHARMACOLOGICAL STUDY of Nardil which definitely proves that the Nardil stops working after some period of time ?
Or possibly, Is there any relation between when the Nardil stop working and its initial manic effects (with the efficacy of the drug after the manic phase passes )?
I am searching for pharmacological proof/evidence which testifying about it, do you know about something what am i thinking ?
Thanks!
Or possibly, Is there any relation between when the Nardil stop working and its initial manic effects (with the efficacy of the drug after the manic phase passes )?
I am searching for pharmacological proof/evidence which testifying about it, do you know about something what am i thinking ?
Thanks!
