St3ve
Bluelighter
- Joined
- Mar 15, 2013
- Messages
- 621
Too long, didn't read.What does TLDR stand for?
As for the OPs questions. It's hard to say whether or not psychedelics (of any kind) will trigger a manic outburst in a bipolar person. I've seen a friend diagnosed with bipolar (and ADHD) gobble up adderall, MDMA, ketamine whilst drinking excessively. And be completely "fine" in the sense of, they were not any more fucked up than a "normal" person would be after a cocktail like that. Then again, I have read stories of people purposefully drinking excessive amounts of caffeine and staying up all night in order to trigger manic episodes.
Please be more precise in your use of the term amphetamines. For you, it may be clear you mean the unsubstituted amphetamine backbone and its related stimulant cousins, but this might not be the case for less informed users. An amphetamine has to function as an amphetamine, by definition.
It's not true though that DOx only act through serotonin. At least DOM, DOET, DOB and DOI also work on adrenergic receptors. Both DOB and DOI also activate dopamine receptors, although weakly (and also relatively more weakly compared to LSD). Since DOC also has a halogen at the 4-position, it's not that far fetched to assume at least weak activity on dopamine receptors. See Ray [2010].
As for the term "psychedelic amphetamine" I'm kind of with AA357 on this one. Quite often you'll read posts on here along the lines of "Be careful with DOX, it's very stimulating because of the amphetamine part". Which to me sounds they think of it as something as a molecule that has two sides, one stimulant and one psychedelic. While in reality, pharmacologically speaking at least, it really does not behave like d/l-amphetamine at ALL and acts exactly purely as a classical psychedelic.
Amphetamine is a term used by chemists to describe compounds that share a certain structural motive (the amphetamine backbone), this does not mean, by definition, that they have to act in similar ways on the body and mind. Some of the amphetamine analogues behave very similarly in terms of pharmacological activity like methamphetamine and 2/3/4-F(M)A. DOx compounds however, do not.
In that paper you linked you can see that DOC has very appreciable affinity for 5HT2B, 2A and 2C (in that order). The numbers on the left are from a logarithmical scale, meaning that dropping down from 4 to 3 is not a potency loss of 25% but a factor of 10. The affinity DOC has for the adrenergic B2 receptor is just above 2 from what I can see so it is just under 100 times less selective for this than the 5TH2B receptor. It has no appreciable affinity for either DAT or NET, which means it does not act like d/l-amp. Also, keep in mind that this is an in vitro screen and does not factor in metabolism, distrubution, blood brain barrier crossing, etc. Results shown here might not be a close representation of how a lot of these compounds actually work in the body.