Papa1
Bluelighter
- Joined
- Oct 16, 2008
- Messages
- 467
i don't see this as contradictory to "randomness"
as a parallel, if you were playing a game in which you choose randomly between zeros and ones.
each answer may be totally random. thus expressing your free will (according to my definition, which is related to "randomness"), even though one could point out that you'll only choose one or zero, and never three or another number
free will has its place within the restriction of some parameters too
or let's say that you have a glass of water on your left and one on your right with no reason to choose one over the other
you have free will to choose which one you want to drink first
even though we're sure that by tomorrow you'll have drunk both because you were thirsty, free will will have played its role until then
that the final result of a process is certain does not prevent free will from influencing how the process unfolds
^ In the zero-or-one game, the number of times I chose either could really be any fraction of the total choices. Say I have some inner fixation with the number 1 and after 1000 trials I've chosen it 70% of the time, or maybe I'm having a zero day and decide to pick that 58% of the time - whatever, there's no strict stipulations on how my distribution of choices will fall. We can phrase this by saying that there are no strict rules governing the probability that I'll choose a 1 or a 0.
In quantum mechanics, however, there are. If the 0-or-1 game was a quantum mechanical system (say, measuring 'spin up' or 'spin down' of an electron) counting the measurements would reveal an extremely strict probability rule (say 50%-50% ). For a given system, these probability rules never change. So whereas the individual measurements are themselves random, the behaviour of the system over a long time is controlled: if we could take an infinite number of measurements, we would find exactly half were spin up and exactly half were spin down, and we could have predicted this beforehand. It's in this sense that quantum mechanics still has some level of 'determinism' - only now it's the probabilities, rather than the specific measurements, which are tightly constrained.
Does this make sense? Please feel free to let me know if I'm being unclear.. There are a few other people floating around (i.e. zorn and qwe) who could probably give a better explanation if you wanted it.
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