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Different purities of LSD cause different effects?

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majordude

Greenlighter
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May 17, 2014
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Is there any science in this argument?

Some claim that 60% LSD will give the same experience as 99%, and any difference in experience will be all in the mind.
 
The argument against the idea that impure LSD provides a different experience is that the impurities are inactive. But couldn't it be that the lack of purity itself causes a difference in effect?
 
Generally that's not how it works. If the impurities themselves are inactive then you just have LSD with a bunch of filler. Imagine you had 100ug of 100% pure crystal LSD then you mixed in a bunch of flour. You still have the same 100ug of LSD, it's just mixed with a bunch of "impurities" now. You'll get the same effect either way.
 
The argument against the idea that impure LSD provides a different experience is that the impurities are inactive. But couldn't it be that the lack of purity itself causes a difference in effect?

Impure material is a mixture of the desired substance and byproducts of the production of said substance. The word "impurity" can only be applied to the total material -- the batch of material. There's no such thing as a chemical that's atoms are messed up or whatever...at least I don't think there is...
 
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