Pfafffed
Bluelight Crew
- Joined
- Jun 30, 2015
- Messages
- 1,851
Initially, people assumed that 4-AcO-DMT was nothing but a prodrug for 4-HO-DMT. It was my understanding that we subsequently learned that 4-AcO-DMT might neither need to be deacetylated to be active nor was it plausible that enough would be deacetylated fast enough to account for its effects.
I'm sorry, I feel like this has been pretty thoroughly addressed in the past, but I can't seem to find the sources for it. Does anyone know where to look?
In the past, I just explained to people that the speed of onset of 4-AcO-DMT via IV injection meant that it had to be active on its own, as it was bypassing extensive first pass metabolism. Upon reflection, though, heroin is supposedly a prodrug that undergoes deacetylation primarily after crossing the BBB when used intravenously. AFAIK, heroin kicks in plenty fast this way, so I'm less sure that this narrative (about being able to use IV administration to empirically test the theory with IV administration) holds up.
II don't want to promulgate misinformation, so any pointers towards articles on the topic would be super helpful!
I'm sorry, I feel like this has been pretty thoroughly addressed in the past, but I can't seem to find the sources for it. Does anyone know where to look?
In the past, I just explained to people that the speed of onset of 4-AcO-DMT via IV injection meant that it had to be active on its own, as it was bypassing extensive first pass metabolism. Upon reflection, though, heroin is supposedly a prodrug that undergoes deacetylation primarily after crossing the BBB when used intravenously. AFAIK, heroin kicks in plenty fast this way, so I'm less sure that this narrative (about being able to use IV administration to empirically test the theory with IV administration) holds up.
II don't want to promulgate misinformation, so any pointers towards articles on the topic would be super helpful!