supersonic89
Bluelighter
First of all, I don't know if I'm asking in the right place. Hope so.
I've been reading the Wiki entry on Tramadol (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Tramadol#Pharmacology) and I read that the Serotonin Transport (SERT) value is 992-1190 (I don't know much about this, but I guess the closer to 0 the higher the action or effect of the drug on the serotonin, right?). While a widely used antidepressant called Sertraline has a value of 0.4-2.8. Pretty freaking low.
So I'll have a few questions about this:
(1) What do these values mean?
(2) This SERT value (of tramadol) shows that, contrary to popular belief, tramadol doen't have much action or effect on serotonin?
(3) Regarding the above, would this show that the antidepressant effects of tramadol are actually product of its opioid metabolite? Which would demostrate that in fact any opioid can be used as an anti-depressant?
Thanks in advance.
I've been reading the Wiki entry on Tramadol (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Tramadol#Pharmacology) and I read that the Serotonin Transport (SERT) value is 992-1190 (I don't know much about this, but I guess the closer to 0 the higher the action or effect of the drug on the serotonin, right?). While a widely used antidepressant called Sertraline has a value of 0.4-2.8. Pretty freaking low.
So I'll have a few questions about this:
(1) What do these values mean?
(2) This SERT value (of tramadol) shows that, contrary to popular belief, tramadol doen't have much action or effect on serotonin?
(3) Regarding the above, would this show that the antidepressant effects of tramadol are actually product of its opioid metabolite? Which would demostrate that in fact any opioid can be used as an anti-depressant?
Thanks in advance.