N&PD Moderators: Skorpio
You should upgrade or use an alternative browser.Any other Analgesia Neurotransmitters/Receptors?
Kittycat5
Bluelighter
Does NMDA and AMPA produce or stop pain?
thanks.Kittycat5
Bluelighter
sekio
Bluelight Crew
sekio
Bluelight Crew
Meaning they synergize with analgesics?Seppi
Bluelighter
Yes, it augments the analgesic effect of opioids. When taken alone, it increases pain tolerance.Seppi
Bluelighter
Yes, but nociceptors are not ligand-gated ion channels.
Some, however, can be activated by a ligand, but ligand binding is not a requirement for channel opening. E.g., TRPV1 responds to capsaicin and allyl isothiocyanate (the compounds in hot peppers and wasabi, respectively), but it also opens in response to high temperature, hence the sensation of burning when it's ligand-activated. AFAIK, pain receptors like NAv1.9 aren't ligand-activated, although some other pain-sensing sodium channels (NAv1.3 and NAv1.8 ) are known to be activated by certain toxins (based upon IUPHAR's coverage of these channels: http://www.guidetopharmacology.org/GRAC/FamilyDisplayForward?familyId=82 - see the detailed pages on those proteins).Seppi
Bluelighter
"and friends" - I chuckled from how you worded that. ![]()
sekio
Bluelight Crew
Please describe at as specific a quality as possible.
Also, there's literally a GABA POM in the mix for depression. I forget what it's exactly called, but they're trying to get it approved for major depression and postpartum depression, among other issues. Other than a high amount of anxiety leading to depression, the only thing that I could possibly link this to is how alprazolam and loprazolam have some sort of antidepressant effect, I'm assuming due to a2/a3 selectivity.Seppi
Bluelighter
What do you mean by that?
In the event you're asking me to elaborate, its effect on opioids is to increase their analgesic effect - i.e., it augments their pain-numbing effect.
The effect on pain tolerance is to increase the threshold at which a response to pain occurs in, as an example, the tail flick test. I call this an increase in pain tolerance as opposed to an analgesic effect because amphetamine doesn't numb tactile sensitivity. In humans, that manifests as an increased ability to endure painful stimuli/sensations - i.e., following amphetamine administration, you might remain stoic to a sensation (e.g., post-operative pain) that would normally make you writhe in agony without an analgesic.
To be clear, I'm not sure whether it simply decreases responsiveness to painful stimuli (without affecting the sensation of pain) or decreases the sensation of pain (without affecting tactile sensitivity). It may do one or both of those things, but either way the net effect is to increase pain tolerance.Cotcha Yankinov
Bluelight Crew
But Ho-Chi, are you asking more about the specific bits in terms of progression of the pain signal up the spinal cord (dorsal root ganglion) and eventually into e.g. somatosensory cortex, and what role analgesic targets play in that scheme?Limpet_Chicken
Bluelighter
Anyone able to give me the latest consensus on the epsilon opioid receptor and the opioidergic 'lambda binding site' ?
I know a little about the former, but almost nothing about the latter.
As far as I can speak about morphine, dipropionylmorphine, etc. and oxycodone, prescribed the first and last of these, and plenty experience with DPM, and I can't say as when in acute pain (which without pain meds is always the case [being a chronic pain patient fucking sucks chocolate starfish] that it makes me 'care less' about pain which is still there. The pain from the bilateral trochanteric bursitis I have, and in my fucked up knee, the opiates actually get rid of it, rather than just make it less important. At least, given a sufficient dose, they do.
Could you explain that simpler please? really trying to understand.
thanks.
It can not be proved with animals experiment but ( at the moment) only with the psycological insight of a human, but I think it is clearly like this, it dumpens emotional response.