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Benzos Xanax rectal (actually read before saying "just pop em")

80mg

Bluelighter
Joined
Mar 1, 2010
Messages
722
Okay. So when I was low on suboxones I took them rectally. Even .25mg was stil lable to be felt. Ever since then I take my suboxones rectaly. It's not the best part of my day, but I use a tiny syringe that honestley you can barley feel. Anyway so this is the first mnoth Im getting my xanax renewed while plugging. So at first i did some research on here and theres a few threads that basically end with no stats to prov that oral is better than rectal and are just shot down real fast.

So I did the sac religous thing and went to other forums

http://www.drugs-forum.com/forum/showthread.php?t=26853

Turns out, over there, there saying pretty much the exact opposite. That hes taking 1/4 of the dose as oral for the same effects. Now although that sounds exaderated I am inclined to think that he may be right about it hitting you faster and stronger.

If I could get some intelligent input with some data to prove or disprove my theory I'd really appreciate that.

P.S.
My RX is in tablet form not liquid like in that paticular post but obviously all Id have to do is crush, suck up, and shake.
 
You may find This Old Thread to be useful, both in the ideas it poses as well as the suggestions it makes, the questions it spurns and the external links some users provide to relevant information. Hit it up!

~ vaya
 
Why do you need studies to prove or disprove anything? Are you on a quest for truth, objective reality defined and referenced in a clinical publication?,,

If you find that this method of taking alprazolam is good for you [you mention it works, and imply that a smaller dosage might be employed with this practice, if I understand correctly], then by all means continue to do so - would you like a link to a double blind something or other funded by the Swedish Royal Mental Health institute[t] that concludes with a direct 'findings show that' your method is a complete waste of time? I don't mean to sound angry or anything, I'm not. I'm just saying..if it works for you, and you feel it works...go with it. You are not harming yourself, this is not some dangerous method of administering a drug, and if it helps cut down on dose, which is always a good thing with alprazolam, then why seek clinical studies that show otherwise?

[what if you are having a 'placebo' type of reaction and 'it's all in your head'? if one supposedly gets the same benefits from placebo as one does with alprazolam...] so i'll conclude with "if the shoe fits, wear it" and " if it ain't broke don't fix it" and other geriatric maxims full of wisdom.


anecdote from personal life experience - i was at psychiatrist with me mither, and she told him a tale of how she once took alprazolam sublingually (ANATHEMA!) following my advice, and how it worked so well. He made a big stir and jotted it down in his notes and his pupils got all big and crazy...

however, when NIRAVAM[TM] came out, which as we some know, is orally disintegrating and does not taste like the bitterness of grim reality, as does the traditional formulation, Mr. Psychiatrist did not elect to discontinue the traditional tablet and switch to NIRAVAM [TM] - why? It's obvious why. 'Studies show' one thing, whereas the bitterness factor alone can exert a pronounced calming effect during an especially strong panic episode. For this, no study is needed, and to show the patient studies that prove that bioavailaility this and absorption that...will just screw up everything and make the sunshine go away.
 
i'm not sure what exactly you're asking - if you can plug xanax?
yes, you can plug it, and it works quite well, though it doesn't have a higher BA than oral or sublingual
the only difference i've noticed in plugging xanax is that it has a faster onset than taking it orally (though not really as xanax hits quite fast orally anyways, i can usually feel my dose in under 20 minutes)
if you're mixing the suboxone and xanax together when plugging that would be the only advantage that i would see from this roa is that both drugs would hit at the same time possibly increasing the potency of either/both drug
as far as using 1/4th the dose and getting the same effects, IME that's false, i would dose the same ammount orally, sublingually, and rectally and it's going to feel the same
so basically, yes you can plug it, but there is no increase of BA or much of a faster onset
if a faster onset is what you're aiming for, sublingual the pills imo
 
I heard that Xanax is more effective orally. I never heard of anyone trying to plug it? Has anyone tried it??
 
I heard that Xanax is more effective orally. I never heard of anyone trying to plug it? Has anyone tried it??

It is more effective orally - that's why this question, no matter how many times it gets asked here, seems ridiculous to me.

Yes, I have tried it rectally and found no reason to do so again other than the fact that the effects manifest at T+0:10 instead of T+0:20 like Mudvayne said above. Its working has to do more with its lipid solubility than its water solubility, but this very fact in and of itself should be more incentive to ingest it orally as the BA of lipid-soluble materials is generally very high when they pass through the GI tract.

If you want to go through all the trouble to plug, go for it, but all it means is that you'll feel it ten minutes sooner and with a lower total Cmax overall.

(If I sound agitated, I apologize - it comes from eight years of being a member of this board and answering these questions about alternative ways to use benzodiazepines [midazolam and a select few excluded!] the same way)

~ vaya
 
It is more effective orally - that's why this question, no matter how many times it gets asked here, seems ridiculous to me.

Yes, I have tried it rectally and found no reason to do so again other than the fact that the effects manifest at T+0:10 instead of T+0:20 like Mudvayne said above. Its working has to do more with its lipid solubility than its water solubility, but this very fact in and of itself should be more incentive to ingest it orally as the BA of lipid-soluble materials is generally very high when they pass through the GI tract.

If you want to go through all the trouble to plug, go for it, but all it means is that you'll feel it ten minutes sooner and with a lower total Cmax overall.

(If I sound agitated, I apologize - it comes from eight years of being a member of this board and answering these questions about alternative ways to use benzodiazepines [midazolam and a select few excluded!] the same way)

~ vaya

Agitated towards me?
 
Why do you need studies to prove or disprove anything? Are you on a quest for truth, objective reality defined and referenced in a clinical publication?,,

If you find that this method of taking alprazolam is good for you [you mention it works, and imply that a smaller dosage might be employed with this practice, if I understand correctly], then by all means continue to do so - would you like a link to a double blind something or other funded by the Swedish Royal Mental Health institute[t] that concludes with a direct 'findings show that' your method is a complete waste of time? I don't mean to sound angry or anything, I'm not. I'm just saying..if it works for you, and you feel it works...go with it. You are not harming yourself, this is not some dangerous method of administering a drug, and if it helps cut down on dose, which is always a good thing with alprazolam, then why seek clinical studies that show otherwise?

[what if you are having a 'placebo' type of reaction and 'it's all in your head'? if one supposedly gets the same benefits from placebo as one does with alprazolam...] so i'll conclude with "if the shoe fits, wear it" and " if it ain't broke don't fix it" and other geriatric maxims full of wisdom.


anecdote from personal life experience - i was at psychiatrist with me mither, and she told him a tale of how she once took alprazolam sublingually (ANATHEMA!) following my advice, and how it worked so well. He made a big stir and jotted it down in his notes and his pupils got all big and crazy...

however, when NIRAVAM[TM] came out, which as we some know, is orally disintegrating and does not taste like the bitterness of grim reality, as does the traditional formulation, Mr. Psychiatrist did not elect to discontinue the traditional tablet and switch to NIRAVAM [TM] - why? It's obvious why. 'Studies show' one thing, whereas the bitterness factor alone can exert a pronounced calming effect during an especially strong panic episode. For this, no study is needed, and to show the patient studies that prove that bioavailaility this and absorption that...will just screw up everything and make the sunshine go away.

After the first 2 sentences I wanted to punch you in the face. Yeah, actually I am on a "quest for the truth". What are you Dr.Lecter with the reverse psychology questions?

"So 80mg, does the xanax help EASE the pain? Does it make you forget about them long nights getting your thieghs slapped by coldcuts from your uncle?" lmao...

As for everyone else....thanks. I got my answer. The only thing Im still kind of curious about is the BA of rectal xanax. Just for shits and giggles at this point.
 
I agree with Valium entirely, I think the OP is misunderstanding what he's saying.

Clinical tests may or may not have any relevance to your physiology- you cannot let clinical papers dictate things like bioavailability/rate of absorbtion because each drug will have unique effects on you. So, if you plug a smaller amount of alprazolam and find that it exerts a stronger effect that allows you to consistantly lower your dosage you can probably assume that, in your case, alprazolam has a higher rectal BA than it does oral BA for you. Put simply- if it works for you do it because your experience of the effects of rectal alprazolam as 'more true' for you than any clinical study.

For instance, when I use methadone (recreationally, not as part of MMT) I plug it. This is because it has a greater rate of absorbtion and, in my experience, a higher bioavailability for me than orally. If I take methadone orally I will take 30-40mg which results in a strong sedation, equivilant to 30mg Diamorphine IV with a 90 minute come up and a 18-22 hour duration- if I plug it I get the same effects from 15-20mg methadone with a 30 minute comeup that lasts 12-16 hours. This makes no sense accoring to the various studies of methadones bioavailibility- while rectal does have a much quicker rate of absorbtion/diffussion through tissue than oral, the BA of oral methadone is around 90% while the rectal BA is meant to be betweem 70-75%. The handful of times I've IV'd methadone I've shot a similar dosage (15-20mg) to what I plug, so my recatl BA of methadone must be pretty close to 100%- however this is not the experience of most people. My experience does not invalidate the study, even if the conclusions of the study are incorrect in terms of my experience.
 
well, one thing to consider is not just BA in Xanax (and methadone too for the above poster) is that it is metabolized by cytochrome P450 (CYP) 3A4. Oral will give a direct route to the liver and likely faster metabolism. Other routes such as plugging bypass first pass metabolism; it is eventually metabolized of course, but the different routes can certainly give different effects to the user.
 
Plugging is the shit (Pun intended)

I have been taking Suboxone for two years and my drug of choice is now Xanax (I am aware of the dangers of this combination, so no need to comment on that). I usually have to take two or three 2mg bars to reach my desired high, but today all I could find were two .25mg pills. After reading this thread, I decided to try plugging them. I crushed them, mixed with warm water, and drew up the fluid into a needless syringe. I'm not as fucked up as I would like, but if I had taken them orally it would have none absolutely nothing to me, but with plugging them I do feel a slight relaxing buzz, as if I had ingested maybe 2mg of Xanax. From now on I will be plugging instead of snorting or popping them.
 
IMO the ROA with the greates BA does not always provide the strongest desired effects. For example, oral methadone has a very high bioavailability, (around 10% higher than rectal administration.). However, IME, I've found that the same dose administered rectally provides not only a quicker onset, but much stronger effects, with the duration lasting almost as long as oral dosing.

Similarly, taking oxycodone with a high fat meal is supposed to raise the oral BA rather significantly, but most people I've known always find that taking oxycodone (or any opiate) orally on an empty stomach provides far stronger effects. Not only that, but many people even feel that eating while taking oxycodone lessens the experience significantly.
 
I've tried plugging it with no success.

Sublingual is the only ROA I'll ever need with alprazolam.
 
I agree that sublingual alprazolam is the way I've always taken it, as I can feel effects within five minutes. 80mg what are you using to dissolve the Xanax? Or are your just sticking the pill up there to dissolve itself?
 
Even when I calculated alprazolams solubility in water, I didn't notice anything.

There's something much more comforting about the taste of xanax under my tongue.
 
I know you can use diazepam intrarectally, but as far as I know the di/triazolos (xanax/alpraz, halcion/triazolam, midazolam) are bioavailiable just fine throiugh oral/sublingual/buccal route
 
^ same here, I've come to really enjoy the taste of alprazolam. It tastes like relief and peace of mind. Plugging it is just a hassle IMO
 
Exactly. In a situation where I need xanax, I wouldn't want to go through the effort of plugging it even though plugging takes like 2 calories.
 
Even when I calculated alprazolams solubility in water, I didn't notice anything.

There's something much more comforting about the taste of xanax under my tongue.

I know I'm a bit off topic here, but it seems like the perfect time to bring this up. I take alprazolam about an hour before bedtime just about every night. on a couple of occasions I have completely forgotten to take it and found myself unable to sleep and agitated. So I tried using it sublingually with hopes of it kicking in faster.
I held it under my tongue until it was completely dissolved (I could still feel the texture of the powder that the pill turned into along with LOTS of saliva ) but felt it was completely dissolved. Then I swallowed it and it didn't seem to work any faster at all.
I'm wondering if there is a specific amount of time I should leave it under my tongue? I think I probably left it there for about 5 minutes or so if I had to guess.
Thanks!!
 
did it work ...with the Xanax im on subs i do those that was too and seems to work great....better the shooting thats for sure
 
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