Or is it more to do with the strength of meth that is the problem that causes it so since 2-fma is alot weaker then it would not cause such a toxic effect?
From my cursory reading it is the constant bombardment of high doses over a long period which destroys the dopamine receptors permanently so that would imply it is a moderation/dose dependent thing no?
I know - we just don't know - but we can make inferences based on current data of general trends with other drugs.
From my cursory reading it is the constant bombardment of high doses over a long period which destroys the dopamine receptors permanently so that would imply it is a moderation/dose dependent thing no?
I know - we just don't know - but we can make inferences based on current data of general trends with other drugs.