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Why did Nichols find MDAI to be non-neurotoxic in comparison to many other 5HT and...

aced126

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...DA releasing agents? Also, why, on a molecular level, is MDAI less selective for DA neurons?

I'm in doubt over whether the absence of neurotoxicity is related to MDAI's pharmacodynamic profile or if it's something to do with the actual molecule itself.

There is a lot of evidence that a lot of selective SRAs aren't neurotoxic due to the fact that not much DA release occurs and that not much DA can as a result be taken up into 5HT neuron and cause damage from there. For example, when a DRA and MDAI are co-administered, neurotoxicity is observed.

In terms of the molecule, the alpha methyl group is cyclised back onto the benzene ring. The structure is below for reference. I remember reading on wikipedia (can't seem to find on what page I read it, it might have been on the MDAI page itself but taken off for some reason) that because the alpha methyl is cyclised, there is no chance for methyl radicals to form unlike in MDMA, and that this plays a key in preventing cellular damage. I do not know much about radical chemistry at all, so if someone could evaluate these reasonings, that would be appreciated and spur interesting discussion.

5%2C6-methylenedioxy-2-aminoindane.png


Furthermore, I pondered over the fact that cyclising the molecule back to the ring could so drastically increase it's serotonin-dopamine selectivity (10:1 from wikipedia article). No new functional groups added, only a (small) change in conformation. Could it be that in fact because the molecule is rigidified and cannot rotate around the indane ring, it would always be in a decent conformation to interact with SERT (MDMA interacts better obviously but MDAI and its conformation definitely does interact well) and be taken up efficiently into the neuron. When coming to the dopamine neuron, it is in a rigidified conformation which either 1) allows lower affinity binding, 2) still binds but fails to be transported into the neuron while DAT is changing conformation.

But when we consider the MDMA molecule, it can interact well with SERT by getting into a similar conformation as MDAI such that it is slightly depressed below the plane of the phenyl ring (like in MDAI, due to the indane moiety, the 2-amino group is depressed under the plane of the ring, similar to an axial substituent on cyclohexane), that is to say, the amino group in MDMA while bound to SERT may be in a gauche conformation, and the energy lost from the antiperiplanar conformation is less than the stabilisation energy from the molecule being bound to SERT. However, when MDMA comes to DAT, it will no longer have to be in a gauche conformation to bind, and just bind in its most stable conformation (antiperiplanar) where the N-methyl group is in the same plane as the ring. This makes sense as I'm guessing the natural substrate for DAT, dopamine, will be in this exact same antiperiplanar conformation when bound to DAT. Thus the MDMA binds effectively where as the MDAI, as the amino group is depressed below the ring and not it its plane, cannot bind effectively in its rigid conformation.

I might draw some pictures later to make my point clear.

IMG_20160312_035147.jpg


IMG_20160312_035322.jpg
 
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The most likely explanation for a loss of affinity in a rigidified molecule is that it does not exist in the optimal conformation for binding. But another issue could be that the new ring produces a steric clash with a region of the binding site.
 
The most likely explanation for a loss of affinity in a rigidified molecule is that it does not exist in the optimal conformation for binding. But another issue could be that the new ring produces a steric clash with a region of the binding site.

Is the second reason likely? I feel that it being in a non-optimal conformation is a much greater factor.
 
Is the second reason likely? I feel that it being in a non-optimal conformation is a much greater factor.
Think about the difference in potency between enantiomers of amphetamine, or enamtiomers of DOM and other hallucinogenic amphetamines. Putting something as small as a methyl group in the wrong location can markedly reduce affinity/potency.
 
Think about the difference in potency between enantiomers of amphetamine, or enamtiomers of DOM and other hallucinogenic amphetamines. Putting something as small as a methyl group in the wrong location can markedly reduce affinity/potency.

True, this explains it more actually. Enantiomers of amphetamine have a significant difference in potency at DAT, explaining why a small steric change in a molecule could blunt activity. But S and R enantiomers of MDMA both have good affinity at SERT, possibly explaining why MDAI can also conform well to the binding pocket.

This also makes me think if R-MDMA is a pure serotonin releaser? Shulgin describes 60mg of S-MDMA to be a very active dose (++), but 200mg of R-MDMA was a "modest +1". Maybe if the dose was raised on R-MDMA, it would produce the effects of a pure SRA. But just another piece of information suggesting that substrates that want to be taken up by DAT really do need to have a nearly perfect conformation.

Any thoughts on the loss of radical generation in MDAI?
 
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True, this explains it more actually. Enantiomers of amphetamine have a significant difference in potency at DAT, explaining why a small steric change in a molecule could blunt activity. But S and R enantiomers of MDMA both have good affinity at SERT, possibly explaining why MDAI can also conform well to the binding pocket.

This also makes me think if R-MDMA is a pure serotonin releaser? Shulgin describes 60mg of S-MDMA to be a very active dose (++), but 200mg of R-MDMA was a "modest +1". Maybe if the dose was raised on R-MDMA, it would produce the effects of a pure SRA. But just another piece of information suggesting that substrates that want to be taken up by DAT really do need to have a nearly perfect conformation.

Any thoughts on the loss of radical generation in MDAI?

Actually the opposite is true. S-MDMA acts as a monoamine releaser (and has higher affinity for SERT than R-MDMA). R-MDMA acts primarily as a 5-HT2A agonist.

http://jneurosci.org/content/31/19/7190.full

http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/2871581
 
Actually the opposite is true. S-MDMA acts as a monoamine releaser (and has higher affinity for SERT than R-MDMA). R-MDMA acts primarily as a 5-HT2A agonist.

http://jneurosci.org/content/31/19/7190.full

http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/2871581

I should have phrased it better. What I meant to say was that R-MDMA could act as an SRA because of its extremely low DA affinity, so that the SERT: DA affinity ratio is large even if the absolute SERT affinity is still low; a higher dosage could be used I guess. And yes, R-MDMA being a 2A agonist makes sense; all other alpha-methylated hallucinogens like the DOX family have more potent R enantiomers.
 
There is a lot of evidence that a lot of selective SRAs aren't neurotoxic due to the fact that not much DA release occurs and that not much DA can as a result be taken up into 5HT neuron and cause damage from there. For example, when a DRA and MDAI are co-administered, neurotoxicity is observed.

I always thought the uptake of DA into 5HT neurons was just a theory but never acutally confirmed. I cant really find much about this unforunately
 
Think about the difference in potency between enantiomers of amphetamine, or enamtiomers of DOM and other hallucinogenic amphetamines. Putting something as small as a methyl group in the wrong location can markedly reduce affinity/potency.

I have often wondered about the (S) isomer of DON. It's affinity to the 5HT2a receptors is vastly lower but Shulgin described the 2-carbon analogue as 'Tofu' i.e. taken with a small dose of another compound and it takes on the effects of the second compound. I also wonder if the duration will be shorter since it appears that the LOOONNGGG durations are because the 5HT2a site cannot readily metabolize them but with lower affinity, it might act a lot more like a releaser. I've never investigated it because you would need VERY good optical resolution and their isn't a simple calculation for what salt will work the best. I've read some theories that it should be 1 carbon less (including a benzene-ring as 3) than the length of the compound. I freely admit that this is stuff I read over a decade ago and that was a decade after my education. Basic information is here - http://www.chem.qmul.ac.uk/iupac/stereo/RS.html but the only improvement I've come across is the Russian method of making amphetamine phosphate which is not hygroscopic so the pure compound it a free-flowing powder even when pure. I have a lot of respect for Russian chemists. I know for sure they were making methcathinone a decade before it reached the west. So many people take the credit but this was the same guy who made methiophene in the same month...
 
^I'm not sure what you mean when you write "I also wonder if the duration will be shorter since it appears that the LOOONNGGG durations are because the 5HT2a site cannot readily metabolize them but with lower affinity.."
 
There is a lot of evidence that a lot of selective SRAs aren't neurotoxic due to the fact that not much DA release occurs and that not much DA can as a result be taken up into 5HT neuron and cause damage from there. For example, when a DRA and MDAI are co-administered, neurotoxicity is observed.

what about 4-FA? triple monoamine releaser - it is reported to be entactogenic so it releases an appreciable amount of serotonin - and as far as i know zero neurotoxicity.

i vaguely remember some mention of MDAI being neurotoxic at higher doses in one of Nichols' papers too. i'll have to look it up. i might be tripping.

have you looked into that glutathione adducts thing on MDMA's neurotoxicity? it did seem like that was the best bet (as opposed to the DA + SERT together making neurotoxicty) though i don't know much...
 
what about 4-FA? triple monoamine releaser - it is reported to be entactogenic so it releases an appreciable amount of serotonin - and as far as i know zero neurotoxicity.

i vaguely remember some mention of MDAI being neurotoxic at higher doses in one of Nichols' papers too. i'll have to look it up. i might be tripping.

have you looked into that glutathione adducts thing on MDMA's neurotoxicity? it did seem like that was the best bet (as opposed to the DA + SERT together making neurotoxicty) though i don't know much...
One difference between MDMA and 4-FA is that MDMA releases 5-HT more potently than it releases DA, whereas the opposite is true for 4-FA. There could be other differences as well -- it is not clear whether 4-FA is a potent VMAT inhibitor.
 
^ yes, i'm aware. 4-FA still appreciably releases serotonin though, doesn't it? it does have some MDMA-like ness, subjectively. binding profile wise i wouldn't say it is much further from MDMA than MDAI is. one could expect some neurotoxicity at extreme doses such as the ones one generally sees in those studies, i guess. when LibGen is back up i'm gonna take a look at those studies which found no neurotoxicity on 4-FA. i don't know about VMAT.

also, on what i said on the second paragraph of my previous post (about MDAI being somewhat neurotoxic on its own). here it is:

"Caution should be used in interpreting the present results, since subacute treatment with higher doses (20 mg/kg) of MDAI alone does produce long-term changes in serotonergic parameters (data not shown). Therefore, one cannot conclude that S-amphetamine "induced" a neurotoxic response in MDAI-treated animals."

from the article you were talking about ace...
 
^ yes, i'm aware. 4-FA still appreciably releases serotonin though, doesn't it? it does have some MDMA-like ness, subjectively. binding profile wise i wouldn't say it is much further from MDMA than MDAI is. one could expect some neurotoxicity at extreme doses such as the ones one generally sees in those studies, i guess. when LibGen is back up i'm gonna take a look at those studies which found no neurotoxicity on 4-FA. i don't know about VMAT.

also, on what i said on the second paragraph of my previous post (about MDAI being somewhat neurotoxic on its own). here it is:

"Caution should be used in interpreting the present results, since subacute treatment with higher doses (20 mg/kg) of MDAI alone does produce long-term changes in serotonergic parameters (data not shown). Therefore, one cannot conclude that S-amphetamine "induced" a neurotoxic response in MDAI-treated animals."

from the article you were talking about ace...

The point of the article is that amphetamine can convert a "non-neurotoxic" dose of MDAI into a "neurotoxic dose".
Nichols never claimed that MDAI is completely beneign if you administer it at dosing regimes that effectively overdose the rats. His point is that behaviorally relevant doses of MDAI (10 mg/kg, the dose that completely generalizes to MBDB) do not produce neurotoxic effects. The rats had to be dosed 4x with 20 mg/kg in order to see a small loss of serotonergic markers (~20% reduction).

In other words. MDAI can induce 5-HT release without producing neurotoxic effects. But that doesn't necessarily mean that MDAI is non-neurotoxic under all conditions.
 
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I should mention MDMA isn't considered nerurotoxic in humans if taken infrequently at doses within the normal therapeutic does range.

Also other prescription amphetamines such as Adderall and Desoxyn result in toxicity if consumed in excess of the therapeutic range.

Hence, this conversation is only relevant if people plan on taking to much MDMA frequently. If normal doses of MDMA are used in proper environments infrequently, then the users are safe.
 
I should mention MDMA isn't considered nerurotoxic in humans if taken infrequently at doses within the normal therapeutic does range.

Also other prescription amphetamines such as Adderall and Desoxyn result in toxicity if consumed in excess of the therapeutic range.

Hence, this conversation is only relevant if people plan on taking to much MDMA frequently. If normal doses of MDMA are used in proper environments infrequently, then the users are safe.

My point of discussion was more from a relative perspective, as to gaining some molecular insight of why MDAI is less neurotoxic than MDMA.
 
a study checking for neurotoxicity in NM-2-AI would be cool. if it doesn't show any (looking at the same markers as ones looked for MDAI) then there's something on the MD ring which contributes too, not just the monoamine release (i know this isn't really related to your topic ace i'm kinda thinking out loud here).
 
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