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  • BDD Moderators: Keif’ Richards | negrogesic

When is oxycodone metabolized into oxymorphone?

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Tajaodan

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Jun 16, 2016
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I can't really find much on this process anywhere. Say you took 45 mg of oxycodone, how long does it take for it to be metabolized in to oxymorphone? Does it start immediately after the oxycodone hits your system?
 
Only a small portion of oxycodone is metabolized to oxymorphone by cytochrome P450 2D6 enzyme, and the rate at which that takes place depends on how active the enzymes in your liver happen to be (genetic differences lead to different rates in different people).

It's not obvious at all how much the oxymorphone metabolite takes part to the effects of oxycodone. Oxycodone itself has opioid effects, unlike codeine which has to be metabolized to morphine and glucuronide derivatives before it takes effect.
 
So will the small amount of oxymorphone be out of your system around the same time the 45 mgs of oxycodone is cleared out of your system?
 
Yes, this process starts before the substance even enters the bloodstream, via something called first pass metabolism. If only a small amount is metabolized, then I would say yes it would be. The amount present makes a difference, but if it's only a minor metabolic product, then it's negligible after the oxycodone has been metabolized and eliminated. It's half life is longer, but I don't think very small amounts of active metabolites linger around much longer than the parent compound, especially when their half-lives are almost the same, give or take a little.

https://www.researchgate.net/publication/23426149_Role_of_active_metabolites_in_the_use_of_opioids > Oxycodone is on page 9
 
Thank you so much. I was just wondering if 7 days would be enough for it to be out of my urine and system.
 
I was wondering if that's why you were asking. I don't think the oxymorphone produced by the oxycodone through metabolism would show up on tests. Otherwise, people who take diazepam would be testing positive for oxazepam and temazepam, too. Which just doesn't happen. Not saying it's not possible, just very unlikely. And oh yeah, 7 days is enough. I think it's 4 - 5 days at least for oxycodone.
 
Yea lol. Well i did some research and found some info that it does show up as oxymorphone. People have been getting introuble and kicked out of pain clinics due to doctors lacking knowledge because it shows up as oxymorphone when only prescribed and taking oxycodone when urine tested by a GC/MS test.
 
I did one friday 80mg of oxycodone and panel nor GC/MS tests didn't find any opiates on monday.
 
polymath said:
Only a small portion of oxycodone is metabolized to oxymorphone by cytochrome P450 2D6 enzyme, and the rate at which that takes place depends on how active the enzymes in your liver happen to be (genetic differences lead to different rates in different people).

It's not obvious at all how much the oxymorphone metabolite takes part to the effects of oxycodone. Oxycodone itself has opioid effects, unlike codeine which has to be metabolized to morphine and glucuronide derivatives before it takes effect.
Click to expand...

Yes, the major metabolite of oxycodone is to the inactive N-demethylated metabolite (forgot the name) and it's dependent on your genetics. Conversion to oxymorphone does not play a significant role in oxycodone's analgesic (or euphoric !!) effects.
 
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