JohnBoy2000
Bluelighter
- Joined
- May 11, 2016
- Messages
- 2,465
Is this a plausible theory?
I ask because, I'm curious as to how long I should wait to consider the full therapeutic effect of a drug to have taken place.
One argument seems to be the downstream modification of gene expression, and protein synthesis?
A very synopsized means of referring to things I don't fully (barely partly) understand, as a means to allude to the possible explanation for AD's time lag.
The other theory being, receptor hypersensitivity being a cause of depression, in addition to low NT levels - though drugs depleting NT levels don't induce depression in normal folk - so perhaps that theory is more relevant regarding the receptor sensitivity part?
But how long would it take receptors to desensitize.
Past 4 weeks or more?
And has there been additional research information as to whether this is a plausible explanation for the therapeutic effects of AD's??
I ask because, I'm curious as to how long I should wait to consider the full therapeutic effect of a drug to have taken place.
One argument seems to be the downstream modification of gene expression, and protein synthesis?
A very synopsized means of referring to things I don't fully (barely partly) understand, as a means to allude to the possible explanation for AD's time lag.
The other theory being, receptor hypersensitivity being a cause of depression, in addition to low NT levels - though drugs depleting NT levels don't induce depression in normal folk - so perhaps that theory is more relevant regarding the receptor sensitivity part?
But how long would it take receptors to desensitize.
Past 4 weeks or more?
And has there been additional research information as to whether this is a plausible explanation for the therapeutic effects of AD's??