I wanted your opinion on this because I have now the pefect setting to test what I wanted to test for a long time and I wanted help to analyse the results.
Here it goes. From the first time I took opiates, I truely felt nothing. Went up to 120mg codeine before saying, hey that might be what they call a high. Then had no more. 2 years ago I was prescribed codeine again and even If I told the guy hey codeine does shit for me (as does paracetamol or Ibuprofen). So following his directions, except the amount to take at once, I developped what I think they called a cramp on intestinal muscles or something. They said it was related to opiates and anti-biotics I had been taking for a week, so they put me on hydromorphone and stopped the antibio. 1mg nothing, 2mg eh,3 mg here you go I finnaly feel something that makes me think opiate addiction isn't impossible since opiates do nothing. I even had to go up to 4mg to get something. but when I got Hydro I had 2 weeks codeine use as a tolerance.
So now I know codeine doesnt do for me, I also know Hydromorphone did SMALL even at what is considered High dose for an opiate naive cuz 2 weeks use is apparently enough to stay opiate naive to the eyes of a doctor.
The only thing left wandering in my head is, 1, do I have low CYP2D6 enzyme and my Hydro tolerance was due to codeine use OR, 2, do I simply have a natural resistance to Opiates and their painkilling effect.
Now why I said I was in the perfect context to test which one is the real one is because I was prescribed MS 5mg and didnt take any opiate for 6+months and cannabis for 10hrs which is a biggie for me.
I now snorted 5mg and feel definately something, and I know it is not placebo. My periferal pain is lessened, I was treated for a burn and I dont feel the burn other than the exact spot of the burn, my general mood lifted, anger lessened and somehow colors appear brighter (not as much as on psychedelics,counting THC, but still). So basically I'd say I am in a normal+ state without any side effects such as drowsiness or ichiness. To me 5mg intranasal as an opiate naive seems to be the lowest effective dose. But I took it Intranasally which makes the whole effect shortened and potentiated but there is also the GREAT change in bioavability that can make an oral 5mg really different from a Intranasal 5mg.
My personnal answer to what do I think I have between 1 and 2 is 2 since 5mg is kinda supposed to be more intense than that otherwise they wouldnt make them so hard to get and also because if 5mg snorted morphine is the lowest effective dose why da hell would they sell 8mg codeine OTC here in canada.
So what do you guys think? 1 or 2.
Here it goes. From the first time I took opiates, I truely felt nothing. Went up to 120mg codeine before saying, hey that might be what they call a high. Then had no more. 2 years ago I was prescribed codeine again and even If I told the guy hey codeine does shit for me (as does paracetamol or Ibuprofen). So following his directions, except the amount to take at once, I developped what I think they called a cramp on intestinal muscles or something. They said it was related to opiates and anti-biotics I had been taking for a week, so they put me on hydromorphone and stopped the antibio. 1mg nothing, 2mg eh,3 mg here you go I finnaly feel something that makes me think opiate addiction isn't impossible since opiates do nothing. I even had to go up to 4mg to get something. but when I got Hydro I had 2 weeks codeine use as a tolerance.
So now I know codeine doesnt do for me, I also know Hydromorphone did SMALL even at what is considered High dose for an opiate naive cuz 2 weeks use is apparently enough to stay opiate naive to the eyes of a doctor.
The only thing left wandering in my head is, 1, do I have low CYP2D6 enzyme and my Hydro tolerance was due to codeine use OR, 2, do I simply have a natural resistance to Opiates and their painkilling effect.
Now why I said I was in the perfect context to test which one is the real one is because I was prescribed MS 5mg and didnt take any opiate for 6+months and cannabis for 10hrs which is a biggie for me.
I now snorted 5mg and feel definately something, and I know it is not placebo. My periferal pain is lessened, I was treated for a burn and I dont feel the burn other than the exact spot of the burn, my general mood lifted, anger lessened and somehow colors appear brighter (not as much as on psychedelics,counting THC, but still). So basically I'd say I am in a normal+ state without any side effects such as drowsiness or ichiness. To me 5mg intranasal as an opiate naive seems to be the lowest effective dose. But I took it Intranasally which makes the whole effect shortened and potentiated but there is also the GREAT change in bioavability that can make an oral 5mg really different from a Intranasal 5mg.
My personnal answer to what do I think I have between 1 and 2 is 2 since 5mg is kinda supposed to be more intense than that otherwise they wouldnt make them so hard to get and also because if 5mg snorted morphine is the lowest effective dose why da hell would they sell 8mg codeine OTC here in canada.
So what do you guys think? 1 or 2.