Well, I'm coming from the perspective of only once having an opiate administered... that was fentanyl when I had my wisdom teeth out to knock me out. I ended up puking afterwards, and actually didn't take any of the oxycodone they gave me. Althought I will say that that was the only time after I'd ever thrown up where I really wanted to eat immediately afterwards...
Anyway, to continue with the discussion, I found an artical by Jason Umans and Charles Inturrisi titled "Pharmacodynamics of subcutaneously administered diacetylmorphine, 6-Acetylmorphine and morphine in mice" where they mention:
"... CNS depressant activity in rats and analgesic activity in cats (Eddy and Howes, 1935) showed that heroin and AM (which is 6MAM, they just used to call it acetylmorphine) were equipotent, suggesting that the effects of DAM (heroin) might be mediated by its metabolite, AM"
The group went on to do more behavioral work showing heroin and 6MAM effects being almost identical in their experiments (in mice).
I also have the paper showing the affinity of each of heroin and its metabolites to the u-opioid receptor, that's titled, "u Opioid receptor-mediated G-protein activation by heroin metabolites: evidence for greater efficacy of 6-monoacetylmorphine compared with morphine."
I think at this point, the most plausible counter-argument one could make is that how do we know that 6MAM isn't just a prodrug for morphine? However, what we find in animal studies is that behavior is correlated with 6MAM levels in the brain when heroin is administered. The morphine levels rise, but much later, so that initial effect is most likely 6MAM.
Anyway, to continue with the discussion, I found an artical by Jason Umans and Charles Inturrisi titled "Pharmacodynamics of subcutaneously administered diacetylmorphine, 6-Acetylmorphine and morphine in mice" where they mention:
"... CNS depressant activity in rats and analgesic activity in cats (Eddy and Howes, 1935) showed that heroin and AM (which is 6MAM, they just used to call it acetylmorphine) were equipotent, suggesting that the effects of DAM (heroin) might be mediated by its metabolite, AM"
The group went on to do more behavioral work showing heroin and 6MAM effects being almost identical in their experiments (in mice).
I also have the paper showing the affinity of each of heroin and its metabolites to the u-opioid receptor, that's titled, "u Opioid receptor-mediated G-protein activation by heroin metabolites: evidence for greater efficacy of 6-monoacetylmorphine compared with morphine."
I think at this point, the most plausible counter-argument one could make is that how do we know that 6MAM isn't just a prodrug for morphine? However, what we find in animal studies is that behavior is correlated with 6MAM levels in the brain when heroin is administered. The morphine levels rise, but much later, so that initial effect is most likely 6MAM.