MDMA purity?

[Black]

MDMA without the salt would be a liquid base and not a crystal and wouldn't be able to get to the brain to actually work when taken.

not exactly. when you ingest mdma freebase, you'll cause corrosive injuries to your esophagus, but your stomach acid turns the freebase into mdma·HCl immediately. it needs to be the HCl to be transported by your (water based) blood and it needs to be the freebase to pass your (fat based) blood-brain-barrier. luckily in a buffered solution you'll always have an equilibrium between the salt and the freebase.



i highly suspect that the whole 84% thing originated when someone sent in supposedly pure stuff to lab analysis, got a result around 80% and confronted their supplier, who replied "well, technically 84% purity is the best you can get". bullshit. mdma·HCl is one compound, not a mixture of compounds, and the labs know that. if you send it off to have it analysed and it's very pure you'll get a result saying 99.9%.
it's just the same with pharmaceutical compounds. when you buy a cough suppressant it'll say 30mg dextromethorphan hydrobromide and not 23.11mg dextromethorphan. no one would say that dxm can only be 77% pure because it comes as hydrobromide salt.

 

[Biscuit]

^^ Following on from what Black said (which I entirely agree with) but just putting it another way:

If you need clear proof, go and pick up any OTC medicine which comes in tablet or capsule form and that contains pharmaceutical drugs that, just like with MDXX substances, are always present in the tablet or capsule in salt form (whether as a hydrochloride, sulphate, phosphate, citrate, etc, etc). The packet will state, for example, the milligram dose of "pseudoephedrine hydrochloride" and not just pseudoephedrine, or the milligram dose of codeine phosphate and not just codeine, because that is how these types of drugs are manufactured, precisely dosed (in a form ideal for ingestion), and ultimately administered. MDMA-HCl, methamphetamine-HCL, amphetamine-SO4 and cocaine-HCl are no different.

The only purpose of discussing dosages in the above precise terms is due to the availability of lab test results. These results are expressed as MDMA-HCL, almost without question, and so this is how this issue should also be approached. As close to 100% MDMA-HCl is what you want. Anything less than that could be made up of literally anything. Unreacted precursors and contaminants produced by the reactions themselves, whilst seemingly "inactive" as far as the user is concerned, could well be fairly nasty (especially if consumed in high doses and over a long period of time) and who really knows what impact they may have on the MDMA experience. Deliberately added adulterants which are psychoactive will of course impact on the experience. Inert cutting agents should not, you will just need a bit more of the substance to get there.

IMO you would be better off having 60% pure MDMA-HCl which was originally 100% pure MDMA-HCl, but simply been diluted with addition of 40% inert cutting agent; as opposed to having 60% pure MDMA-HCl, which hasn't been cut it all, it is just so poorly made that the manufacturer has managed to produce a product with 60% MDMA-HCl and 40% of fuck knows what else - precursors, reagents, solvents, contaminants produced in the reaction, impurities in the original precursors, etc, etc.

 

[Black]

correct. but recently, i've seen testing results listing mdp2p as contaminant. so it isn't as if the test centers just say "60% mdma" when there are significant amounts of precursors in the product. of course getting that knowledge requires access to lab testing for the end users.

this makes me wonder if and how mdp2p reacts with the common test reagents...