no kidding.
except that naloxone is capable of blocking them, as we see in some studies.
I don't like the study cited above for a couple reasons, but it's mostly a general distrust of these PET scan studies (and the like). They seem like the new phrenology.
What I don't understand is how the better studies (more participants) find no connection but the smaller studies seem to.
I've not had naloxone, or rather, I've not had naloxone where it would do anything, however, is it the case that naloxone produces subjective effects? I'm wondering if the subjective effects it produces give it something of an active placebo quality that gives it a benefit above the inactive placebos, because even in the studies that find activity, it's only active against mood and euphoriant effects of the runners high, not the hypoalgesic effects it produces.
Which, if endorphins are the primary mediating factor, and based on the whole theory behind it, blocking the endorphins should block the pain relief of the runners high. But naloxone has no effect in any study on this aspect of the high. WTF does this mean?
I hope I'm explaining myself well, I'm getting rather tired, and this is something that wraps itself around and around, it seems.