Plumber101010
Greenlighter
- Joined
- Aug 17, 2016
- Messages
- 44
No matter how much research I cannot come up with an answer to this. Google is not what it used to be and as soon as you punch in this question some of the keywords make it come up with 1 million topics unrelated.
All I ask is please don't answer with opinions or guesswork. I'm quite capable of doing that. I'm trying to understand this from a medical and factual standpoint.
If someone has been on oxycodone for many years and in quantities of say over 100 mg a day and they quit. Then hypothetically two years go by and they break a leg.
Will the oxycodone have an original effect as it did from the first day that person started using them? Like one or two pills will be more than sufficient?
Or will that threshold NEVER be the same again and it will take a large quantities to reduce the pain?
Thanks everyone ahead of time!
All I ask is please don't answer with opinions or guesswork. I'm quite capable of doing that. I'm trying to understand this from a medical and factual standpoint.
If someone has been on oxycodone for many years and in quantities of say over 100 mg a day and they quit. Then hypothetically two years go by and they break a leg.
Will the oxycodone have an original effect as it did from the first day that person started using them? Like one or two pills will be more than sufficient?
Or will that threshold NEVER be the same again and it will take a large quantities to reduce the pain?
Thanks everyone ahead of time!