Cotcha Yankinov
Bluelight Crew
- Joined
- Jul 21, 2015
- Messages
- 2,952
Thanks for the explanations as always!
If the agonist test ligand is better at displacing the antagonist radioligand in a high-affinity state homogenate compared to a low-affinity state homogenate, could a situation like this cause an appreciable difference in measured affinity between those two assays?
Thanks for any thoughts.
Imagine we have an agonist test ligand and antagonist radioligand mixture in two different homogenates - one featuring a cell line with lots of low-affinity state receptors and the other with lots of high-affinity state receptors.If the test ligand is an agonist and activates the receptor, that wouldn't have any effect on the subsequent binding of an antagonist radioligand because antagonists are equally happy to bind to the active or the inactive conformation.
If the agonist test ligand is better at displacing the antagonist radioligand in a high-affinity state homogenate compared to a low-affinity state homogenate, could a situation like this cause an appreciable difference in measured affinity between those two assays?
Thanks for any thoughts.