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The new "abuse free opoid analgesic" BU08028

Cotcha Yankinov

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http://www.pnas.org/content/early/2016/08/24/1605295113.abstract

Yet the analgesic effects can be blocked by MOR blockade? "Systemic BU08028 (0.001–0.01 mg/kg) produced potent long-lasting (i.e., >24 h) antinociceptive and antiallodynic effects, which were blocked by MOP or NOP receptor antagonists."

Is this BU08028 working via nociceptin-orphanin and it's effects can simply be reversed by MOR antagonism regardless, or is this drug MOR subtype selective/functionally selective and therein lies its lack of physical withdrawal and possibly a lack of reinforcing effects? I don't know what to make of the analgesic effects being able to be reversed by either MOR or nociceptin-orphanin blockade. Maybe a basal level of both MOR and NOP play such a crucial role in blocking pain signals that eradication of the one receptor with blockade will reduce the effectiveness of the receptor that is not being blocked even if there is strong agonism at that receptor.

So I guess it is probably either MOR or NOP (or a combination) responsible for the analgesic effects but we don't know which one or if both are responsible, and so far must assume there is functional selectivity or subtype selectivity at MOR if there is not much physical dependence, or that NOP agonism counters MOR mediated dependence in some drastic way (I doubt it).

I see also that this is being heralded as an opoid that you can't abuse - isn't it too early to say that it can't be abused in humans?

Any discussion is welcome.
 
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This looks to me to be just a patent-grabbing attempt now that bupe is generic and the Suboxone strips are eventually going to be generic as well. Bupe has a t-butyl group, this has a t-pentyl group (omg 2-methyl-2-butanol + bupe!!11)

isn't it too early to say that it can't be abused in humans?

Of course! Pharma people underestimate the ability of drug abusers to, er, abuse drugs :) Plus given what we know about bupe and its pharmacology... makes me wonder what the effect of the nor-compound of this drug would be? Perhaps a (more) potent MOR ligand like norbupe?
 
Safer new generation (or analogue in case of BU), that's what they also claimed Z-drugs to be. They're more selective but other than that pretty much just as bad as benzo's.

Probably best to wait until there is more data and enough peer review that puts claims to the test. What is this significant difference in reinforcing effects or tolerance development? Might mean a step in the good direction - 'abuse free' is very bold compared to that.

If this BU doesn't get a user 'high' per se but just numbed to pain... then possibly there is more selectivity (how is the question), making tolerance / withdrawal also limited to increased noniception.

Shifted as a mixed agonist / antagonist?
 
Pretty sure it will be a partial agonist, yes. In these opioids, N-cyclopropylmethyl tends with pretty damn few exceptions to result in partial agonists or antagonists. More often partial agonists, but still, one to be extremely wary of if dependent on opiates.


All these 'safer, much more selective, super-new, more abuse resistant than the previous drugs of the class' type attention-grabbers seem to have one underlying message to me 'this will be utter fucking shite'. Z-drugs for instance, zolpidem is a little effective, but weird, hallucinogenic, dissociating, memory-screwing stuff that tends to mess me up good and proper, not make me sleep. Zopiclone causes me auditory hallucinations, very slight tiredness, very short acting, and I just wake up again the moment its worn off IF I sleep at all in the first place, whilst zaleplon is more or less a 'no-drug', it may as well be active placebo for use in studies in premature infants with severe dwarfism. And within an hour, or less even, if there was anything on the very horizon hinting it might have been something other than inert, its gone.

Compared to benzos. Some are utter garbage, like oxazepam (which causes nasty paradoxical effects in me, I don't like things that metabolize to it either generally speaking), temazepam is apparently sought after but I don't know why. Lorazepam works for stopping a seizure in progress, crappy for sleep. Loprazolam was nice, it actually WORKED on me, and with moderate but not strongly, hypnotic properties somewhat. Whilst nitrazepam is excellent, as are flubromazolam, bromazolam, bronitrazolam and aut ny other nitrobenzodiazepines I've ever had.

But bugger benzos generally, to my tastes. I like my chlormethiazole, or occasionally bromethiazole (chlormethiazole with a bromine atom replacing the chlorine in chlormethiazole, not used clinically anywhere that I know of) I like it, and I stick to it whenever possible. Although for occasional sedative use, since I am by now, very used to chlormethiazole I'd go with nitrazepam of the rx benzos. But, heminevrin is THE best of the sedative-hypnotics I have tried, other than barbital, indeed its a barbiturate/picrotoxin site ligand like the barbs but without the memory-fucking AMPA receptor antagonism. And whilst its old, and its dangerous in overdose with a steep dose response curve, it is extremely effective, very clear headed, intermediate duration of action, and one of the very few GABAergic sedative-hypnotics that actually really do do the trick and perform as I would ask of it.


Been wanting to try methaqualone, the original, oldschool methaqualone itself, not some darknet crap that probably isn't, or etaqualone. But the real thing. That, ethchlorvynol (placidyl) and doriden (glutethimide). Especially ethchlorvynol, that one looks like a
mean wee beastie with, going from structure, some real fucking kick to it.


'Back in the day' so to speak, they seemed not to give a fuck that things were strong, possibly dangerous, yes, but strong, effective and did not fanny about. Seems like the older the sedative-hypnotic, the better, until we get to around the 17th century AD, when they were still using the likes of paraldehyde, chlorbutol, chloral hydrate and bromal.

I would some time like to try sulfonal, trional and tetronal however, albeit carefully, as these antiquated hypnotic/sedatives are stated to be reliably effective, and in my copy of 'the household physician, vols. I&II' these drugs were all the rage, the new kids on the block, brand shiny spanking new, as they had just been introduced, kind of the Z-drugs of their day, in the sense of being something exciting and a fresh set of tools in the doctor's bag.

Although they should not be used regularly for a consecutive time period for long, because they seem to cause some kind of weird drug-induced porphyria. Very, very little information seems to exist on these, perhaps they were not in use long. But modern use is non-existent and I have NEVER read a firsthand account of sulfonal, trional OR tetronal being used.
 
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If this BU doesn't get a user 'high' per se but just numbed to pain... then possibly there is more selectivity (how is the question), making tolerance / withdrawal also limited to increased noniception.

I predict a small issue there with these types of drugs promoting pain amplification syndromes (where the nerves amplify sensation to the point where soft touch is extremely painful). But theoretically if there are limited side effects you could take the drug forever. There could also be pharmacological methods to reduce risk of developing a pain syndrome with withdrawal.

Pretty sure it will be a partial agonist, yes. In these opioids, N-cyclopropylmethyl tends with pretty damn few exceptions to result in partial agonists or antagonists. More often partial agonists, but still, one to be extremely wary of if dependent on opiates.

I ponder this drug's effectiveness on pain (especially neuropathic pain) in the long term - it is opoid antagonists that block the Toll Like Receptors located on the microglia (the cells that induce a pain amplification state) while opoid agonists are horrible for true neuropathic pain in the long run because they bind to TLR4 (and other Toll Like Receptors) and activate microglia, eventually inducing a pain amplification state even in normal animals. I would hope that we check just what is going on there, and make sure that this new drug isn't activating microglia a bit in the long run because it is something of an agonist at TLR4, while it reduces pain in the short term. Maybe soon we will have dextro-naltrexone available for pain amplification states because it is fairly selective for Toll Like Receptors over opoid receptors, so to combine dextro-naltrexone and this BU would be very interesting.

All these 'safer, much more selective, super-new, more abuse resistant than the previous drugs of the class' type attention-grabbers seem to have one underlying message to me 'this will be utter fucking shite'

I can definitely feel the attention grabbing bit, I'd sure like to see some human cases to back up the hype but who knows, maybe this is the drug that starts us down the path of pain relief without addiction/dependence.
 
Its just the way that when drugs are promoted as being safer, it often means they are fucking weak as shit in practice. Like the Z-drugs and most benzos.

An excuse for the medical system to then drop the drugs that, whilst they have both high abuse and high recreational potential, they are strong in the arm, reliable workhorse drugs and effective. Chlormethiazole, barbs, opioids like good ol' morphine, prope dope, opium or its isolates, never mind pissy partial agonists, mixed agonist-antagonists, or weak, noxious scrapings from the dirt below the bottom of the swill-barrel such as propoxyphene, codeine 8/500s, DHC 7.5/500s, docs giving out oral morphine in doses that would be unworthy of being spat on if administered in any way bar intracerebroventricularly or intraspinal/intrathecally.

And you know what else, other than your typical junkie-ism, that I call opioid abuse? forcible restriction of the availability via prescription to patients who are in pain of strong, effective, powerful and properly bioavailable full agonist opioids, at the expense of the trendy, the promoted and new, the fashionable, 'safe' ones, being weak, ineffective and unsatisfying to the patient. Just out of fear of the PATIENT abusing them, it does not mean the fucking doctor has a right to do precisely that him/herself.


Also I think it most pertinent, and quite to the point, that when sick, when miserable, and if in agony, the way that powerful currently used opioids do not only cause physical analgesia, that very same euphorigenic potential, the relaxing, sedative, comforting effects provide as much PSYCHIC analgesia as they do physical. And the one compliments the other, and does so not in a softly spoken whisper, but, hit up a solid belt of say, my prope-dope, and she'll go find that source of misery and pain cowering in their holes, stamp on the pain, tie that nasty ass malignant little fuckweasel up and stuff it back down said hole. Then fish out the PSYCHE-afflicting stress, worry, tension, the element of being in pain and or ill that does so much to wear down the person suffering as does the physical pain, and not, unlike all these trendy fucking weakshit old extant opioids, such as partial agonists, meptazinol, codeine, and give that guilty party such a piercing shriek right down the lug'oles, that it damn well dare not raise its head again until one's psychic guard turns her head and goes off duty.

Abuse potential has so much to tie in with true efficacy I not only do not think they can be separated. I also, do not think that to do so should even be attempted, because if that attempt were to succeed, patients would be denied the choice. The chance to choose between these socalled abuse-potential-free opioids, and something reliable that we have had for a while, the ones that come not just with the equivalent of a centrally acting local anaesthetic blockade, but the ones that go and fluff your pillow, warm your bed, bring you a big steaming mug of hot chocolate after cleaning the lens of your stereo, and finally tuck you in, sticking on an 'agonoize' album and never forgetting to sprinkle a bit of lavender oil on your pillow and crank the fucking volume up as she goes out to keep guard.
 
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yl)piperidinl-4-yl)-indolin-2-one (SR16835), which are not in the oripavine family, but bind with greater affinity to the NOP receptor, also have ␮ -mediated antinociceptive activity that is attenuated by the NOP component (Khroyan et al., 2009). Like- wise, buprenorphine enhances alcohol consumption at low doses, presumably through ␮ opioid receptors, but reduces alcohol consumption at higher doses. This reduction in alcohol consumption is blocked by the NOP receptor antagonist [Nphe 1 ,Arg 14 ,Lys 15 ]nociceptin-NH 2 (UFP-101), suggesting that the buprenorphine-induced reduction in alcohol consumption is caused by activation of NOP receptors (Ciccocioppo et al., 2007). An NOP-mediated reduction in CPP and self-administration of a variety of abused drugs by N/OFQ is already well documented (Murphy et al., 1999; Kotlin ́ ska et al., 2002; Ciccocioppo et al., 2003; Zhao et al., 2003). Therefore, it is possible that increasing the NOP agonist efficacy in buprenorphine, or other opioid ligands, may produce an effective nonaddicting analgesic and may be more efficacious than buprenorphine for drug abuse pharmacotherapy.

The buprenorphine analog BU08028 was designed to have increased affinity and efficacy at the NOP receptors. BU08028 is the first reported “universal opioid ligand” that binds with high affinity (under 10 nM) to each of the receptors in the opioid receptor family. BU08028 is almost 10 times more potent at NOP receptors than buprenorphine and also has higher functional efficacy at NOP compared with buprenorphine in vitro (Table 2). Because BU08028 has similar ␮ receptor activity to buprenorphine but increased NOP activity, we expect diminished ␮ -receptor-mediated effects such as antinociceptive activity, tolerance development, and reward. In acute antinociception assays, BU08028 seems less potent than buprenorphine, showing virtually no antinociceptive activity at 0.1 mg/kg and little activity at 0.3 mg/kg (Fig. 2), possibly suggesting NOP-mediated suppression of ␮ -mediated antinociception. However, the antinociceptive activity of BU08028 is potentiated only by the NOP receptor antagonist SB612111 at higher doses of BU08028, suggesting NOP receptor agonist activity has little or no dis- cernable effect on antinociception at low doses of BU08028.


Alternatively, the lack of antinociceptive activity at low doses might suggest that the higher logP of BU08028 is hindering its access to the central nervous system. Even though the partial agonist activity of BU08028 at ␮ receptors in vitro is similar to that of buprenorphine, the dose-response curve of BU08028 for antinociception is much steeper than that of buprenorphine, where the higher doses of BU08028 produced near maximal effects. As demonstrated in many reports, the dose-response curve for buprenorphine is very shallow, never approaching 100% MPE (Cowan et al., 1977; Ide et al., 2004).


In addition, animals dosed with BU08028 exhibit a very profound Straub tail (T. Khroyan, unpublished observation), indicative of ␮ -like excitatory activity, and an obvious increase in locomotor activity, also a ␮ -mediated effect in mice (Cowan et al., 1977). BU08028 produces antinociceptive effects that are longer- lasting than buprenorphine, consistent with BU08028’s higher logP. BU08028 antinociception is still strongly evident 24 h postinjection with virtually 100% activity remaining at 10 mg/kg, whereas buprenorphine antinociceptive activity is no longer evident at this later time (Fig. 2). Furthermore, it was anticipated that a compound with higher NOP efficacy, similar to the mixed NOP/ ␮ agonist SR16435, would likely have a reduced tolerance development (Khroyan et al., 2007). However, as shown in Fig. 5, administration of BU08028 over 9 days resulted in tolerance to its antinociceptive effects, similar to that seen with morphine and buprenorphine.From these experiments it is evident that BU08028 produces a very long-lasting antinociceptive effect, but tolerance to this effect develops at a similar pace compared with the parent compound buprenorphine. Initial assessment of the rewarding effects of BU08028 was conducted using the one-trial PC paradigm with a 48-h period between drug and vehicle sessions (Fig. 6). This behavioral protocol was used to avoid any interference with the long- lasting effects of BU08028.


Similar to morphine, BU08028 produced CPP. BU08028 was also directly compared with its parent compound buprenorphine using this same protocol. Buprenorphine produced an inverted U-shaped dose-response curve where the 3 mg/mg dose produced a significant CPP and 1 and 10 mg/kg did not, a phenomenon that has previously been observed in rats (Brown et al., 1991; Rowlett et al., 1994). In mice, CPP to buprenorphine has been reported after repeated injections at the 3 mg/kg dose, whereas one-trial conditioning with this dose did not result in CPP (Marquez et al., 2007, 2008). Using the more common repeated-injection PC protocol, BU08028 also produced CPP after four drug pairings, when drug sessions were not separated by 48 h (Fig. 7). Apparently, the effect of BU08028, with respect to “reward,” is not as long- lasting as its antinociceptive effect, lasting less than 24 h, being associated only with the drug-paired compartment and not in- terfering with the production of a CPP. 18,19-Dehydrobu- prenorphine (HS 599), a didehydro derivative of buprenorphine that is also long-lasting, did not produce CPP in the traditional PC training regimen (Lattanzi et al., 2001). It is possible that, unlike BU08028, HS 599 may have longer-lasting effects that influence the development of CPP, and that the drug effects could have carried over to the vehicle session. In any case, the present findings show that BU08028 produces CPP alone and suggest that its NOP agonist activity is not attenuating its ␮ receptor-mediated behavior with respect to antinociception, tolerance development, or reward.


Although buprenorphine is approved for maintenance for heroin addiction, it has been considered as a potential pharmacotherapy for other abused drugs. Previous research has examined the effects of buprenorphine on cocaine-induced behaviors. Chronic buprenorphine administration can decrease cocaine intake during self-administration, drug-in- duced reinstatement of extinguished cocaine seeking, and cocaine-induced locomotor activity (Sorge et al., 2005; Sorge and Stewart, 2006; Placenza et al., 2008). In the PC paradigm, buprenorphine has been reported to both attenuate and potentiate cocaine-induced CPP (Brown et al., 1991; Kosten et al., 1991). These discrepant findings are probably caused by the experimental parameters including the drug regimen used. We were hoping that BU08208 would reduce cocaine-induced CPP. Not surprisingly, however, because BU08028 produced CPP, it was unable to attenuate cocaine- induced CPP.


The goal of this project was to synthesize and characterize compounds with significant NOP receptor activity to supple- ment ␮ (and potentially ␦ and ␬ ) activity found in the buprenorphine scaffold. The behavioral results obtained with BU08028 can also be compared with other bifunctional ␮ /NOP receptor ligands that we have characterized previously. We have demonstrated previously that SR14150 and SR16435, both with high affinity and partial agonist activity at NOP and ␮ receptors, have antinociceptive activity that is inhibited by naloxone and potentiated by the NOP receptor antagonist SB612111 (Khroyan et al., 2009; Toll et al., 2009). SR16435, which has an in vitro profile strikingly similar to BU08028, produces antinociception and CPP, indicating that, like BU08028, the NOP component is not sufficient to block the rewarding effect of the ␮ component. It is interesting to note that SR16435 has one behavioral feature diamet- rically opposed to that of BU08028. Although BU08028 causes a large increase in locomotor activity, SR16435 does the opposite, resulting in reduced activity levels, a behavior attributed to NOP receptor activation.


This difference in global activity observed with SR16435 and BU08028 is diffi- cult to explain because these compounds have a similar in vitro profile with respect to NOP, ␮ , and ␬ receptors, but suggest once again that the ␮ -mediated activities are strongly represented in BU08028. Alternately, it is possible that the very weak ␦ component of BU08028, which is not present at all in SR16435, might contribute to the increased global activity seen in BU08028. As we have shown previously, it is possible to overcome potential ␮ -, ␬ -, and ␦ -mediated behavior by increasing the relative NOP activity of a compound. For example, we have shown that SR14150, which has increased NOP affinity and is 20-fold selective for NOP over ␮ receptors, is not rewarding on its own (Toll et al., 2009). To go one step further, SR16835 is a full agonist at NOP receptors and a weak partial agonist at ␮ receptors. This compound is not analgesic on its own and is able to attenuate morphine CPP (Toll et al., 2009). To- gether, all of these data suggest that the balance of NOP and ␮ components of mixed-profile compounds such as these can have significant impact in modulating the antinociceptive and rewarding aspects of the compounds. With BU08028, which is a partial agonist at both NOP and ␮ receptors, ␮ -mediated activity masks effects that could be mediated by the NOP receptor. It is possible that a different buprenorphine analog with high affinity at all the opioid receptors but with full agonist activity at NOP may counteract other traditional opioid-mediated effects such as reward and antinociception.

https://www.researchgate.net/figure...effect-of-BU08028-A-and-buprenorphine-B-alone

This study suggests that its abusable and that it has tolerance development
 
I think it's safe to assume that as long as the drug produces a subjective "high" feeling, it's going to be prone to abuse. Sadly, the lack of that by itself still won't eliminate the problem of tolerance and physical dependence as is evident in many other classes of drugs.
 
Yup, and it doesn't seem to be non-reinforcing etc. as much as it is maybe less reinforcing, less dependence forming, less respiratory depressing etc than other opoids. We'll see about efficacy for pain in humans I guess...
 
Are we still doing this "nonaddictive opioid" thing? Didn't it get old already after heroin proved to be not so heroic? Such sensationalism should be illegal.
 
Are we still doing this "nonaddictive opioid" thing? Didn't it get old already after heroin proved to be not so heroic? Such sensationalism should be illegal.
I understand the sentiment behind your critique, but obviously pharmacology has advanced a bit since the 1890s. It is potentially possible to develop a non-addictive opioid, although this one might not work out. I think some folks here are underestimating how truely difficult it is to reach this goal.

Limpet_Chicken said:
Its just the way that when drugs are promoted as being safer, it often means they are fucking weak as shit in practice. Like the Z-drugs and most benzos.

An excuse for the medical system to then drop the drugs that, whilst they have both high abuse and high recreational potential, they are strong in the arm, reliable workhorse drugs and effective. Chlormethiazole, barbs, opioids like good ol' morphine, prope dope, opium or its isolates, never mind pissy partial agonists, mixed agonist-antagonists, or weak, noxious scrapings from the dirt below the bottom of the swill-barrel such as propoxyphene, codeine 8/500s, DHC 7.5/500s, docs giving out oral morphine in doses that would be unworthy of being spat on if administered in any way bar intracerebroventricularly or intraspinal/intrathecally.

The practice of medicine functions best when a range of medications with varying efficacies are available. Yes, pentobarbital can reliably sedate a patient to the point that they are unresponsive, but most patients don't require such a strong sedative and will respond just as well to diazepam. Because patients are much more likely to OD on pentobarbital than on diazepam, most physicians would rather prescribe a weaker drug. Barbiturates and older sedatives are rarely prescribed because physicians don't like to prescribe them.

Limpet_Chicken said:
And you know what else, other than your typical junkie-ism, that I call opioid abuse? forcible restriction of the availability via prescription to patients who are in pain of strong, effective, powerful and properly bioavailable full agonist opioids, at the expense of the trendy, the promoted and new, the fashionable, 'safe' ones, being weak, ineffective and unsatisfying to the patient. Just out of fear of the PATIENT abusing them, it does not mean the fucking doctor has a right to do precisely that him/herself.


Also I think it most pertinent, and quite to the point, that when sick, when miserable, and if in agony, the way that powerful currently used opioids do not only cause physical analgesia, that very same euphorigenic potential, the relaxing, sedative, comforting effects provide as much PSYCHIC analgesia as they do physical. And the one compliments the other, and does so not in a softly spoken whisper, but, hit up a solid belt of say, my prope-dope, and she'll go find that source of misery and pain cowering in their holes, stamp on the pain, tie that nasty ass malignant little fuckweasel up and stuff it back down said hole. Then fish out the PSYCHE-afflicting stress, worry, tension, the element of being in pain and or ill that does so much to wear down the person suffering as does the physical pain, and not, unlike all these trendy fucking weakshit old extant opioids, such as partial agonists, meptazinol, codeine, and give that guilty party such a piercing shriek right down the lug'oles, that it damn well dare not raise its head again until one's psychic guard turns her head and goes off duty.

Abuse potential has so much to tie in with true efficacy I not only do not think they can be separated. I also, do not think that to do so should even be attempted, because if that attempt were to succeed, patients would be denied the choice. The chance to choose between these socalled abuse-potential-free opioids, and something reliable that we have had for a while, the ones that come not just with the equivalent of a centrally acting local anaesthetic blockade, but the ones that go and fluff your pillow, warm your bed, bring you a big steaming mug of hot chocolate after cleaning the lens of your stereo, and finally tuck you in, sticking on an 'agonoize' album and never forgetting to sprinkle a bit of lavender oil on your pillow and crank the fucking volume up as she goes out to keep guard.

There are certainly some situations where is is medically/ethically desirable to expose patients to opioid-induced euphoria, but it is not ethical to take such a risk in at least some % of patients who require an analgesic. Furthermore, it would certainly be useful to have a reliable strong analgesic drug that could be prescribed freely with no fear of addiction or toxicity.
 
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These guys cheap snake oil hustling .. but technically it is possible. It seems that MOR activation with beta arrestin recruitment instead of cAMP gives BOTH nociception and euphoria WITHOUT reinforcing ie non-addicting opioids. Some compounds seems to be able to do that. MOR activation --> beta arrestin recruitment ? I came across some papers on that but am not sure if that happens only with kappa or mu? can somebody clarify!!
 
How are you going to eliminate reinforcement when there's euphoria? Humans tend to repeat activities that result in positive feelings, euphoria being one, be it drugs, food, sex, or whatever. The two seem inseparable to me.

You can have analgesia without euphoria, but not euphoria without reinforcement IMO.
 
I'm not big on the popular activity of bashing pharmaceutical companies as evil incarnate at every opportunity. I tend to see more gray on the world, but I also see the obvious. And it seems obvious to me,that as far as pharmaceutical companies are concerned. All drugs are nonaddictive, until studies have shown for sure that they are. Even if the nature of the compound makes it's addictive potential obvious.

Nonaddictive is pharmaceutical advertising code for "it's new and nobodies gotten addicted yet (cause noones using it yet), no further comment"
 
Belligerent, as a general principle and heuristic, I certainly agree with you.

However, as admittedly unsuccessful as it has been, we can certainly give rational design based on mechanism a go. We already know that euphoriogenesis and addictiveness are not perfectly correlated - tobacco is more addictive than its euphoria would predict, LSD less. We also think we have some grasp of how reinforcement works: dopamaninergic neurons are activated in concert with some other neurotransmitter system. How about an opioid (mu agonist, say) which also possesses anti-dopaminergic activity? Mightn't that be a reasonable shot at a non addictive euphoric drug?
 
How are you going to eliminate reinforcement when there's euphoria? Humans tend to repeat activities that result in positive feelings, euphoria being one, be it drugs, food, sex, or whatever. The two seem inseparable to me.

You can have analgesia without euphoria, but not euphoria without reinforcement IMO.

There are definitely molecular mechanisms yet to be exploited that can allow euphoria without reinforcement, I reckon. Euphoria and reinforcement are different (some drugs aren't that euphoric but reinforcing, others vice versa, suggesting the 2 have related but distinct molecular mechanisms).
 
^ I can understand reinforcement without euphoria (implying other mechanism for reinforcement). Which drugs are euphoric, but not reinforcing?

However, as admittedly unsuccessful as it has been, we can certainly give rational design based on mechanism a go. We already know that euphoriogenesis and addictiveness are not perfectly correlated - tobacco is more addictive than its euphoria would predict, LSD less. We also think we have some grasp of how reinforcement works: dopamaninergic neurons are activated in concert with some other neurotransmitter system. How about an opioid (mu agonist, say) which also possesses anti-dopaminergic activity? Mightn't that be a reasonable shot at a non addictive euphoric drug?

I admit I don't know the exact mechanism for reinforcement, or euphoria for that matter, but logically thinking, reinforcement needn't come only from euphoria - there may be other mechanisms or reasons for reinforcement. So, a drug can be reinforcing but not euphoric, but it can't be euphoric but not reinforcing. I hope I'm wrong of course.
 
I imagine at minimum that a drug can be euphoric and you can cognitively acknowledge that that state caused by that drug is more preferable to be in than a sober state, and that can lead to some reinforcement (desire to be in that state?) even if it's not the typical cue/conditioned place preference forming state of reinforcement. This might not be something you would see in creatures that are less cognitively able to identify which state they would rather be in and what causes that state if a drug is bypassing traditional reinforcement mechanisms. Lest we not forget some humans are already conditioned for reinforcement when taking pills, already primed to check the medicine cabinet and take more over and over or whatever.

And I don't know if psychedelics are a good example of a non-reinforcing drug. I certainly know some humans that really like taking psychedelics quite regularly but are limited by tolerance and are also swayed by negative experiences and uncomfortability during the trip that can outweigh the pleasant effects. Psychedelics can take their toll on you mentally as well. But without the negatives I just mentioned you might find more compulsive use of psychedelics in humans.

So I hypothesize that if you could isolate the brain state of people experiencing euphoria on psychedelics and give people a switch to throw to turn on this brain state, a portion of people would probably throw that switch on to varying compulsive degrees.
 
It's a profound question, indeed: what are the components of a euphoric experience, and how close do combinations of those components get you to the intact whole? I suppose that knowledge-wise, we're simply not at the stage where we can test it - our dissection tools are blunt.
 
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