I find that sitr to be extremely inaccurate, based on my own experience and the opinions of any doctor who's prescribed me benzos. While many equivalency calculators have some discrepencies (i.e. some say 1mg xanax=10mg valium, others say 1mg X=20mg V), every other chart I have seen considers Xanax and Klonopin to be equipotent, This one is way ow well this one is way off on their clonazepam equivalencies. Compared to other sources, this site underestimates the potency of klonopin by 2-4x's the strength of other sources.
The potency of one benzodiazepine is only comparable to the potency of any other benzodiazepine(s) if and only if potency is used as a measure of the quantity required to achieve a particular effect.
For example, one could compare the potency of temazepam to that of clonazepam by finding the proportion between the dosage of temazepam necessitated to result in a degree of somnolence that is equivalent to the degree of anxiolysis produced by some quantity of clonazepam. In other words, one could say 30 mg temazepam is equipotent to 2 mg clonazepam, if that specific dosage of the former is as hypnotic as the dosage of the latter is sedating—an equivalency involving the relation of two parameters.
Or one could say 180 mg temazepam is equipotent to 2 mg clonazepam if the former is as anxiolytic as the latter—an equivalency involving only one parameter.
But one cannot make any meaningful comparison between the potency of two different benzodiazepines without accounting for differences in the efficacy of their set of effects.
One must necessarily qualify what pharmacological effect they're using to compare the drugs' potencies for the equivalency to be serviceable and of any real value. This is because, while all benzodiazepines have the same set of effects, different benzodiazepines may be more effective than others at producing one or more of those effects, be it anxiolysis or sedation or disinhibition or ataxia or skeletal muscle relaxation or CNS depression or anterograde amnesia or euphoria or antiepileptogenesis and so on.
Consider how useless it would be to assert, for example, that 0.25 mg triazolam is equivalent to 1 mg diazepam. Equivalent for what? To be sure, the effects of triazolam and diazepam are essentially identical. But the dosage comparison is patently invalid nonetheless, because the two drugs produce those identical effects with nonidentical efficacities; triazolam is less successful than diazepam as a sedative, but diazepam is less successful than triazolam as a hypnotic, even though both drugs act as sedatives and hypnotics in sufficient doses.
So then, the immediate consequence is that, while their ED50 and LD50 are not incomparable, it would be impractical and unworkable for one to employ the dosage equivalency of the two drugs for a linear extrapolation—the effect of, say, 15 mg diazepam are not equivalent to the effects of 3.75 mg triazolam, which is just what such a benzodiazepine equivalency would suggest. That amount of diazepam would be very euphoric and relaxing, in my experience. On the other hand, that amount of triazolam, for someone without a benzodiazepine tolerance, would leave them on the floor.
Therefore, the notion of benzodiazepine dosage equivalency is utterly useless because it is merely a comparison of chemically related compounds, without any consideration for their pharmacological profiles.
Thus, it doesn't work at all, unlike with an opioid analgesic equivalency which is a comparison based on an actual pharmacologic property—namely, analgesia—rather than being just a comparison of structurally analogous chemical substances.
To put it succinctly, you ain't making no fucking sense if we don't know what goddamned property is being used to calculate the potency and to draw the goddamned equivalency in the first place.
![:\](https://bluelight.org/xf/BL_Images/Orig_Emoji/wrygrin.gif "wry grin :\")
