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The entire field of neuroscience of drugs of abuse is flawed

Jabberwocky

Frumious Bandersnatch
Joined
Nov 3, 1999
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It's no surprise that almost all finding have a contradictory result with other studies, and when translated to humans usually have unpredictable results.
There are a lot of methods used in animals to know if a drug has abuse potential or not, the most used one is "free self-administration" studies, where the animal has a button which administers a drug everytime it is pressed, if they repeatedly press the button then it has potential for abuse. Then in order to determine if some agent has potential for treamtent of addiction, they test how capable it is to modify the rate or dosage of self-administration.

And heres when the problems start, and I give you an example using buspirone (a drug used to augment SSRI effects) and Chlorpromazine (a strong dopamine antagonist)
Heres how much more % of cocaine monkeys self-adminitered when Buspirone was given.
buspirone-coca.png


As buspirone dosage increased, the monkeys also increased the number of times they wanted to do cocaine, until a large enough dose, where they stop using cocaine.

and heres the chart for Chlorpromazine
chlorpromazine-coca.png


As Chlorpromazine increased, the more cocaine the monkeys did, until the dosage was large enough and they stop using cocaine.

The authors then concluded that buspirone is an agent that can be used to treat cocaine addiction. The reason given is that the charts are identical.
The problem here is that you can intrepret self-administration studies in two different ways:
1) Increase in drug use, means that the rewarding effect has increased, so the animals do more of the drug.
2) Increase in drug use, means that the rewarding effect of the drug has decreased forcing animals to do more of the drug to achieve the same rewarding effects.
The authors choose the intepretation #2, and the identical nature of the charts.

But by looking at the pharmacodynamics of these two drugs you can better understand what is happening.
Buspirone increases seratonin, dopamine and noradrenaline release at low doses, by blocking or downregulating inhibitory mechanisms that prevent too much of these chemicals to be avaible.
At higher doses, it starts to block dopamine receptors acting like a antipsychotic. So the monkeys are pressing the button more often because the drug feels more potent and have more rewarding effects. Until the dosage of buspirone is so great that it acts as a antipsychotic which then they stop using cocaine because it does nothing for them.
Intepretation #1 is what is probably happening with buspirone (yes buspirone increases cocaine and methamphetamine high).

Chlorpromazine is an antipsychotic which blocks dopamine receptors.
So intepretation #2 is what is most likely to happen with chlorpromazine. It is known in humans that dopamine antagonists decrease the effects of stimulants. So this increase in the usage of cocaine is likely happening because they are not feeling as high as before, until the dosage of chlorpromazine is so high that complety stops the effects of cocaine and they stop using.

Just because we know that chlorpromazine decreases the high of cocaine and the study resulted in a identical chart for buspirone and chlorpromazine, doesn't mean they are doing the same thing.

If you start researching studies on drugs of abuse, you will never get anywhere if you follow the authors conclusions. You need to know the pharmacodynamics of the drug + brain of the animal tested (mice are very different from us), + when and how the drugs are given.

And sure enough, they tested Buspirone in humans and they all reported that their high was higher on buspirone + methamphetamine, than on methamphetamine alone.
buspirone-meth.png


This example is just to demonstrate why all studies are flawed, because they all use the same method. You are better off knowing in-vitro pharmacodynamics, in-vivo pharmacokinetics of the drugs and apply some logic.
 
effects of oral methamphetamine
pop quiz, hotshot: what % of methamphetamine abusers primarily dose per os?

The authors then concluded that buspirone is an agent that can be used to treat cocaine addiction. The reason given is that the charts are identical.
The problem here is that you can intrepret self-administration studies in two different ways:
1) Increase in drug use, means that the rewarding effect has increased, so the animals do more of the drug.
2) Increase in drug use, means that the rewarding effect of the drug has decreased forcing animals to do more of the drug to achieve the same rewarding effects.
The authors choose the intepretation #2, and the identical nature of the charts.
The authors conclude that the data support the interpretation that buspirone can be used to treat cocaine addiction. This would not be the only criterion for a drug treating cocaine addiction. In addition, it seems reasonable to assume that the most likely dose level would be at the high levels which decrease cocaine self-administration, in which case the interpretation is rather straightforward.

Buspirone increases seratonin, dopamine and noradrenaline release at low doses, by blocking or downregulating inhibitory mechanisms that prevent too much of these chemicals to be avaible.
At higher doses, it starts to block dopamine receptors acting like a antipsychotic.
Bupropion does not substantially increase 5-HT levels at any therapeutic dose. Nor does it block dopamine receptors. Instead it blocks nicotine-sensitive acetylcholine receptors -- nAChR. nAChR antagonism has been shown to attenuate apparent reward effects in some animal models with some addictive drugs (e.g. MDMA):
 
If buspirone is scripted for cocaine abuse, it shoudl be to big a dose rather than just emough. If you understand why you've read this well
 
This is what the authors of the study wrote in the discussion section

buspirone-coca-disc.png


It's not one study, this shit is chronic. I dont know if these people are just stupid or what is wrong with them. Something is not right.
 
They aren't passionate about drugs like us, and the education they get in school is based off the wrong idea that all drugs are just inherently bad. They also don't have experience. Its dumb as hell. Also, the way funding happens for these "scientific studies" is also flawed...
 
They aren't passionate about drugs like us,
As a university researcher, I can say with certainty that the very best researchers in any field are dispassionate about the subject of their enquiry. The worst quality research I read in any subject is always by researchers who see themselves as activists or evangelists. This applies particularly in the social sciences.

The vast majority of quality papers in research into stimulant addiction and its potential cures (my main area of personal interest) begin with the fact that stimulant addiction is a widespread and growing problem with measurable negative social and physiological consequences for users. Their is no moral judgement about whether the use is right or wrong and nothing in the research would change if the stimulants were legal and available on every street corner in vending machines. Most quality papers end with a fairly lengthy discussion of the limitations of the research and suggestions about directions for further research. Very few researchers claim to have found ‘the answer’ to anything. All they claim is to have added a modicum of new knowledge to the field as a whole. That’s why most papers reference 100 other papers.

To dismiss the whole system as flawed is to misunderstand how it works and what it is for. Where is does get flawed is when you start looking at human trials of proprietary drugs. Those papers need to be treated with a great deal of suspicion and can only be evaluated properly when you have all the data that was excluded from the final results (which you never do).
 
You know, I just read through Pike et al:


Acute buspirone + methamphetamine produced changes in opinions like this:
buspirone-meth.png


You will notice that:

- buspirone only produces statistically significant "improvements" in any measure of intoxication at the 15 mg dose level of methamphetamine, no significant differences at 30 mg
- the 15 mg oral dose of methamphetamine without buspirone is not significantly better than placebo on any measure of intoxication except baaaaarely on "Take Again"
- the difference between placebo and any methamphetamine dose level on "Take Again" is lower with buspirone than without
- the difference between placebo and 30 mg of methamphetamine is smaller (but not statistically significant for any single metric) with buspirone on every metric of intoxication except "High" (impairment?)
- (not shown) cardiovascular side-effects are reduced with buspirone (this is probably why people liked it better when they did imho)

tl;dr: buspirone enhances methamphetamine doses that don't get you high in the first place...
 
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Acute buspirone + methamphetamine

- bupropion

tl;dr: bupropion enhances methamphetamine doses that don't get you high in the first place...
↑I assume these are typographical errors? i.e. After initially using "buspirone", all subsequent instances of the substance name is "bupropion" (which is Wellbutrin).
 
↑I assume these are typographical errors? i.e. After initially using "buspirone", all subsequent instances of the substance name is "bupropion" (which is Wellbutrin).
Yes, all of these drug names end up swapped in my head sometimes...
 
Antipsychotics aim to block dopamine. Who says this causes mania? Those that deal these drugs are in Epstein’s pedophile ring. They’re off practicing mind control.
 
Antipsychotics aim to block dopamine. Who says this causes mania? Those that deal these drugs are in Epstein’s pedophile ring. They’re off practicing mind control.
Abilify wonderful for delusions and conspiracies.
 
Funny you should mention that. Been noticing it a lot lately myself i.e. found papers where the list of references is longer than the content of said papers! :unsure:
Just the introduction to my PhD cites 147 different books and articles. In order to position my argument in an ongoing intellectual history. My contribution is incremental. All academic work is. No-one really publishes something revolutionary apropos of nothing that came before.
 
Wellbutrin is good for meth withdrawal, relatively speaking. In concert with remeron and modafinil it has some research behind it.

We don't know all too much, no reason to throw out all of our current data. We are getting somewhere.

Clozapine isn't really thought of as a dopamine inhibitor.
 
Wellbutrin is good for meth withdrawal, relatively speaking. In concert with remeron and modafinil it has some research behind it.

We don't know all too much, no reason to throw out all of our current data. We are getting somewhere.

Clozapine isn't really thought of as a dopamine inhibitor.
Clozapine is seen as the first atypical antipsychotic, as it's main target is the 5HT2A receptor, not any of the dopamine ones (even though, at heart, it's a phenothiazine).
 
The first and the best. Well I dunno. NDMC is a D2 partial and then some. My research suggests D4 as most important. Some NE activity, strangely enough though. Maybe it is a phenothiazine, but that doesn't necessarily mean it will act like most others. I mean, bupropion is a phenethylamine but is nowhere near d-amp, and methylphenidate acts differently than its cousins.
 
Buspirone is utterly worthless if you ask me, I got it alongside mirtazapine and all it did was giving me brain zaps from 5ht1a autoreceptor activation.

To the topic, I too think much of neuroscience science is actually flawed. Like the forced swimming test as an antidepressant model when it could simiarly pass as a memory inhibition test. Animal experiments generally don´t scale too well to other species and today we have the technology to do better...
 
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