Branggen
Bluelighter
- Joined
- Jul 18, 2013
- Messages
- 801
Ive always wondered why taking partial antagonists causes the dreaded "precipitated withdrawl" I understand that due to it high affinity it rips off the full agonists but are the receptors not immediately at least "partially" replaced. I mean if taking subs while in withdrawal generally makes you feel fine and occasionally euphoric (so im told) why would they not have that effect? Is it just to drastic of a change to quickly or does it take time after ripping away the previous opiod before attaching itself? And this wouldnt have anything to do with the nalaxone in the pill would it?
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