VerbMyNoun
Greenlighter
- Joined
- Dec 23, 2014
- Messages
- 4
This is my first post so please feel free to point out ridiculousness herein (as you would anyway I suppose). This is kind of a two-parter; I apologize if this is improper format.
1.) Moving from roughly an 18.75-22.5 mg dose to a 15 mg dose, is it possible for the same effect to be achieved assuming potentiation had always been used (tonic water, GFJ, cimetidine, diphenhydramine, dxm)? {Basically, take a little less and have same effect} - More potentiation? something beyond potentiation? -- This kind of leads into the next question --
2.) It is understood that alcohol and opiates is a stupid idea - but, philosophically speaking, would beer help more before or after dose? (I know there are similar questions, but this one deals specifically with timeline: T -30/ T +30, before or after, etc...) There has been experimentation on this, but results were slightly inconclusive.
[I read the guidelines well, but I'm not sure if my "technical writing"/"non-first person" style is enough to achieve non-incrimination...]
Thanks
1.) Moving from roughly an 18.75-22.5 mg dose to a 15 mg dose, is it possible for the same effect to be achieved assuming potentiation had always been used (tonic water, GFJ, cimetidine, diphenhydramine, dxm)? {Basically, take a little less and have same effect} - More potentiation? something beyond potentiation? -- This kind of leads into the next question --
2.) It is understood that alcohol and opiates is a stupid idea - but, philosophically speaking, would beer help more before or after dose? (I know there are similar questions, but this one deals specifically with timeline: T -30/ T +30, before or after, etc...) There has been experimentation on this, but results were slightly inconclusive.
[I read the guidelines well, but I'm not sure if my "technical writing"/"non-first person" style is enough to achieve non-incrimination...]
Thanks
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