RCs Flubromazepam - 2 Types

[Bizzle613]

Firstly, I would just like to say hi to everyone in this forum, which I have known (and lurked on) for many years. I recognize BL to be head-and-shoulders above the rest when it comes to harm reduction and advice on substances that have the potential to both improve lives and end them abruptly. Kudos to all those members who have undoubtedly saved and improved countless people's lives.


Regarding my thread on Flubromazepam, I have noticed that there exists 2 different (albeit similar) molecules:

A) 5-(2-Fluorophenyl)-7-bromo-1,3-dihydro-2H-1,4-benzodiazepin-2-one

and:

B) 7-bromo-5-(2-fluorophenyl)-1,3-dihydro-1,4-benzodiazepin-2-one


I appreciate the reality of benzos and many other substances having differing effects from one individual to another. However, regarding the effectiveness of these two, I have encountered only several people who have said that they prefer B over the A. I understand the effects to be almost identical, after reading several people's anecdotal reports about B's effects, and having used A myself many times. Unfortunately I cannot find anyone who has done A and described the effects here, nor have I found anyone who has tried both.

Att the moment, I have little if any tolerance to benzos or any gabaerics apart from recovering from a nearly-daily addiction to Phenibut and alcohol a year ago, and happen to use the A version of Flubro on a once-per-weekly basis (twice at the most, separated by 3 days) with impressive effects for my GAD. I use 10mg with amazing, 36-hour anxiolytic effects. The onset and duration of the effects, as well as the effects themselves, appear to be identical in both. The only difference I have read about from only a few people, is the mg per mg dosage required to achieve these effects. From all accounts, Flubro B is simply more potent. Can anyone with actual experience using both shed some light?

If I missed a thread, I would welcome the normally despised "use the search function" comment. Please attach to this comment an actual link to the thread!

Thanks!

 

[sekio]

They're two slightly different IUPAC names for the same chemical. Even though there's only one name that's "strictly correct", you can still write the name for a chemical structure slightly differently and have it be recognized as valid.

Just like amphetamine can be written a bunch of different ways that all mean the same compound - alpha-methyl-phenethylamine, 1-phenyl-propan-2-amine, 2-amino-1-phenyl-propane, a-methyl phenyl ethyl amine, etc.

 

[Bizzle613]

They're two slightly different IUPAC names for the same chemical. Even though there's only one name that's "strictly correct", you can still write the name for a chemical structure slightly differently and have it be recognized as valid.

Just like amphetamine can be written a bunch of different ways that all mean the same compound - alpha-methyl-phenethylamine, 1-phenyl-propan-2-amine, 2-amino-1-phenyl-propane, a-methyl phenyl ethyl amine, etc.

I find it strange that people note very different effects.. though I do realize effects are subjective and their comparison possibly incorrect as it clearly lacked the science you noted above. Some vendors carry one, some the other. Many people did say that they experience much less sedation, euphoria and "fluffy"ness that molecule B produced, and even called molecule A "Flubro lite". These are literally, 100% identical molecules?

 

[sekio]

They're literally the same molecule. "compound A" and "compound B" are just two names for the same molecule.

Here's ChemDraw proof.

NSFW:

Many people did say that they experience much less sedation, euphoria and "fluffy"ness that molecule B produced, and even called molecule A "Flubro lite".

Yeah, and this is prime evidence why going by bioassays alone is useless for judging purity/identity of drugs. Especially with drugs like benzodiazepines, where people develop tolerance to the subtle effects quite rapidly.

People can respond to placebos in all sorts of different ways depending on their expectations of that the drug will do... this is why anything short of double blinded testing is close to useless in medicine. I have seen several cases of people suspecting that one batch of a chemical was "less pure" or "contaminated" than another from a different vendor, only to have them appear as exactly the same material on GCMS.

You can't really trust people eating drugs as a sole method for analysis...

 

[Bizzle613]

You can't really trust people eating drugs as a sole method for analysis...

Indeed. I was already skeptical given that they describe the effects almost identically with dosage being the only variable. Like you said, that can be all over the place based on tolerance. That diagram clears it up 100%.

Thanks! I'd give you rep points if I could (if they exist here).