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Dose conversion between H#3 and H#4

RivieraLife

Greenlighter
Joined
Jan 20, 2015
Messages
47
Hi guys - I've been doing some research lately and couldn't seem to really find a definitive answer to my question, maybe I haven't been wording it correctly. I'd appreciate a little help (if this is already answered feel free to point me in the right direction, slap me on the wrist and close this)

I usually do about 0.2g of #3 in a day, snorted (I know it isn't that efficient, but it works just fine, plus I just fucking love snorting things) I'd guess my doses are 20-50mg each go, but it takes at least a point to nod.
My question is - how much more potent would #4 be, roughly? I know it's hard to say based on purity but if anyone has a decent amount of experience with both that'd be awesome. I've only done #4 once.

What I'm essentially trying to figure out, is whether it'd be more worth my while to buy 1/2g of #3, or 1/4g of #4 if they are of roughly equal cost. My other alternative I guess would be plugging my #3, but... I don't fancy shoving citric up my ass!

I appreciate you guys reading, so thanks :)
 
Theres no way we can answer do to purity issues. Assuming they are 100% pure than the conversion is 1 to 1. Heroin is heroin.
 
I think if you are snorting #3 heroin, and if it average number 3, it's probably also weaker then average #4, and since it's not greatly bioavailable when snorted, I'd say you should probably use about half the amount of #4 as you would #3, and take it from there.
 
Thanks guys. I knew that the differences in purity would of course be an issue, I just wasn't sure how much the bioavailability would change between the two seeing as #4 is of course much better for sniffing.
I'm just sorta... trying to figure out if it's worth it, or if I should just stick to #3 and get twice as much of it for the same price (say if for example it was of a similar purity, even though of course it won't be)
 
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