dirzted
Bluelighter
- Joined
- Mar 11, 2013
- Messages
- 637
Ok all my pharmacology research basically comes from wikipedia and nothing else so excuse me if this is a completely stupid question but I keep reading up on the specific binding affinity of certain drugs on different receptors and was wondering what concentration of a substance at a receptor site makes it become potent? (smaller amount, greater physiological response) Like if something greatly changes the state of a person at 100nm concentration at a specific receptor, does that make it potent? Obvi there's more than one receptor involved in the process of drug eliciting a response, but like in the case of opiates you could say the mu receptor is the most important receptor involved in the mechanism of action of the opiate, so are the concentrations and resulting physiological response relative to how powerful the opiate is? Like hydrocodone is less potent than morphine, so 300nm (amounts are totally made up) of the hydrocodone metabolite is needed to bind to the receptor where as only 100nm of morphine was needed to bind to elicit the same response.
I'm sure this question demonstrates my lack of understanding of a lot of these terms so I hope some of you can educate me a little more on how binding affinity works or just on pharmacology in general
I hope this question even makes sense at all haha
I'm sure this question demonstrates my lack of understanding of a lot of these terms so I hope some of you can educate me a little more on how binding affinity works or just on pharmacology in general
I hope this question even makes sense at all haha