I was told it takes AT LEAST 2 full weeks to see effects from Prozac and often it takes 6 or more weeks so I'm not really sure it's possible for prozac to actually be fully in one's system enough after only 5 days for it to have a negative interaction with anything.
Of course, this is a question that only a doctor could answer but I'd ASSUME that if one can't see therapeutic effects from Prozac in only 5 days that therefore it also can't be in one's bloodstream to the extent to cause a negative interaction.
I'm not sure if this is true though, maybe negative interactions can occur even if therapeutic effects aren't yet evident, but just from knowing that much already it would seem unlikely.
I mean meth ALONE is a VERY hard drug and OBVIOUSLY can make your heart race and doesn't seem unusual to me that it could make you dizzy or make breathing difficult, BUT I am pretty sure that Meth CAN have negative interactions with SSRIs so I just don't know.
No, this isnt right. There would be enough fluoxetine in your system to possibly have drug interactions or side effects after 5 days, without having therapeutic benefit. It used to be thought because it took awhile for autoreceptors to downregulate which delayed the therapeutic benefit, but this clearly isnt the whole story.
Anyway, even though it can take 4 weeks for fluoxetine and 12 weeks for its active metabolite to reach steady state, as little as 3-7 days will 50% accumulate which is plenty for interacting with meth or anyrhing else.
Claiming ODB died of SNRI's is misleading, if not downright disingenuous. The SNRI involved in ODB's death was Tramadol.
For those who are unaware, Tramadol is simultaneously an opioid and an SNRI. People who get addicted to it do so because of the opioid effect, and as tolerance to builds they'll take increasingly large doses to the point where the SNRI action pushes their serotonin to critical levels.
A Tramadol addict taking several hundred miligrams in a single dose (and mixing it with cocaine, an SNDRI) is obviously in greater danger of suffering a seizure than someone who takes their medicinally prescribed dose of Effexor.
Im not sure I understand how its misleading. It wasn't the opioid properties it was the snri (norepinephrine reuptake inhibition) specifically that caused massive toxic levels in the brain when combined with the cocaine. Thus SNRI action. Tramadol is not prescribed as an antidepressant I know that, but the mechanism is the same when it comes to reuptake inhibition of serotonin and norepinephrine.
Which is why when I withdraw from Tramadol, the symptoms I suffer thew most are those of antidepressant typical withdrawal symptoms, brain zaps, depression, etc, moreso than opiate withdrawal symptoms. Tramadol's snri activity is pretty potent my friend. Thus why I said SNRI. If you are still confused by this let me know..
Regardless, ssris don't affect norepinephrine. Bringing snris into it when the op was asking about ssris is pointless.
Im not sure I understand how its misleading. It wasn't the opioid properties it was the snri (norepinephrine reuptake inhibition) specifically that caused massive toxic levels in the brain when combined with the cocaine. Thus SNRI action. Tramadol is not prescribed as an antidepressant I know that, but the mechanism is the same when it comes to reuptake inhibition of serotonin and norepinephrine.
Which is why when I withdraw from Tramadol, the symptoms I suffer thew most are those of antidepressant typical withdrawal symptoms, brain zaps, depression, etc, moreso than opiate withdrawal symptoms. Tramadol's snri activity is pretty potent my friend. Thus why I said SNRI. If you are still confused by this let me know..