ungelesene_bettlek
Bluelighter
- Joined
- Feb 15, 2006
- Messages
- 913
Dear expert psychopharmacologists,
after all the years, I am still wondering: is it true that NMDA-antagonism by arylcyclohexylamines via the PCP binding site of the glutamate receptor is intrinsically tied to dopamine reuptake inhibition? If so, how does it come?
Please explain it to me in laymen's terms (i.e. I do hold a MSc degree and almost a PhD in a "hard" scientific field, but unfortunately not in pharmacology).
Sincerely yours,
your nosy researcher
PS: See this 4.5 year old thread by me in the ADD archive: dissociatives / arylcyclohexylamines pharmacology
after all the years, I am still wondering: is it true that NMDA-antagonism by arylcyclohexylamines via the PCP binding site of the glutamate receptor is intrinsically tied to dopamine reuptake inhibition? If so, how does it come?
Please explain it to me in laymen's terms (i.e. I do hold a MSc degree and almost a PhD in a "hard" scientific field, but unfortunately not in pharmacology).
Sincerely yours,
your nosy researcher
PS: See this 4.5 year old thread by me in the ADD archive: dissociatives / arylcyclohexylamines pharmacology
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