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Bupe will a small amount of bupe precipitate wd?

SaosinEngaged

Bluelighter
Joined
Oct 25, 2010
Messages
449
Tolerant to 180mg/day of oxycodone. I took one 60mg dose about 7 hours ago and am out and starting to feel off. Was wondering if doses ranging from. 25-.5mg of hype would cause PW if taken tonight? I'm talking about a dose small enough to keep the bupe acting as an agonist. Ideally just making me feel a bit better. Would this work at all?
 
No, there is a good chance it will precipitate w/d. Wait a min of 12hrs. Frankly, the longer you wait, the better off you'll be getting something out of the bupe.
 
No worries, I think we gotcha. But really, ime there is more of a chance that even a small amount of bupe will precipitate w/d than not. At times I was able to get away with using bupe less than 12hrs after using a fully agonist, but it's better not to risk it.
 
Thanks guys. Yeah I understand bupe well I've used it successfully a few times. I just got to wondering what would prevent this kind of use as I thought at low doses bupe is agonistic. I guess it is much more complex than that.
 
At low doses it presents more agonist properties relative to antagonist properties at other (higher) dosages, but ime/imo it's still a partial antagonist
 
Yes, it's more "agonist" like at lower dosages, but, that's really more for users who are on maintenance or have little to no tolerance.

The reason the precipitated withdrawal occurs is because buprenorphine has a higher binding affinity than heroin, and all full agonist pharmaceuticals prescribed in the US. A small dosage of bupe will not target whatever receptors are empty, it will attach to whichever ones it wants, so yes, even .5mg can cause precipitated withdrawal.
 
The reason the precipitated withdrawal occurs is because buprenorphine has a higher binding affinity than heroin, and all full agonist pharmaceuticals prescribed in the US. A small dosage of bupe will not target whatever receptors are empty, it will attach to whichever ones it wants, so yes, even .5mg can cause precipitated withdrawal.

derrrrr ;) sorry, I couldn't help myself. Well put! Nice and eloquent description given the OP's question, as opposed to some of my more rambling descriptions of bupe's action =D
 
Sorry my man, I didn't mean to come off as a jerk, I'm kind of sedated now, and I sort of skimmed through the thread and decided to just give a single packaged answer. There is so much confusion around bupe, what a weird drug.
 
I spent a year using while on soboxone going back and forth...i used to wait 12 hours before dosing...ment a few close calls when chemist was due to close and i needed to dose and didnt feel in enough withdrawal to do so...but did anyway...I never had P.W ever...BUT i did get sick once when i IVed an 8mg tab...

Wait until you are teary eyed and shivery is my call...every one is different...start of slow...good luck...
 
You have to know your body, man. I know people who need to wait at least 24 full hours before touching bupe..others like myself, who have a faster metabolism, can take it without the affects of precipitated withdrawals at 9-12 hours. But usually, simply the feeling of your full agonist "wearing off" isn't cause enough to take bupe. Base it on how you feel. It's the only way to tell, because like I said..what could be 24 hours needed to avoid PW's for one can be only 12 to somebody else. Wait until you feel sick—genuinely sick—not an over exaggeration in your head, and then dose.
 
Is buprenorphine actually an agonist? I thought that the naloxone in suboxone was the agonist and bupe, or buprenorphine, which is the generic form of subutex (not suboxone) was simply an opiate that will in no was precipiate withdrawls. My understanding is that if you take it while on a high dose of an opiate you will not get any higher, but will get no effect rather than any negative effect. While suboxone (which has naloxone in it as the agonist) would make w/d symptoms kick in. Isn't this correct?
 
Sorry, might have my understanding a bit screwed up there. Can someone clafiry bupe vs. naloxone for me?
 
Buprenorphine itself is a partial agonist (meaning that it has agonist effects at receptor cites just like oxycodone, heroin or other full agonist. The difference is, buprenorphine only activates those receptors to a degree. The common way to visualize it is using a door as an analogy. With oxycodone, a dose of 5mg will open the door slightly, increase the dose, and it will keep opening the door more and more causing more agonist effects, ie.-euphoria, resperitory depression etc.. With a partial-agonist, like buprenorphine, the door will only open so much, so that increasing the dosage past a certain point will cause no more agonist effects.) Likewise, buprenorphine has antagonistic properties (like naloxone, which is an antagonist). It has a super high binding affinity, which will lock tightly into opiate receptors, kicking off full agonists and at certain dosages, it will block other full agonists like oxycodone, because the bupe is occupying the receptors, therefore the oxy has no where to go, than swim around in your blood stream until it is excreted.

However, buprenorphine has a higher binding affinity than naloxone, so the naloxone in suboxone is inactive. It's used as a scare tactic to make addicts think that crushing up and sniffing/shooting suboxone will throw them into withdrawals, and this is not true. Buprenorphine itself, is what causes precipitated withdrawal, when used on top of a full agonist, not naloxone
 
^+1,000,000

:( I'm sad I didn't get to explain... I like to use magnets as my analogy ;)

btw, I wasn't trying to imply you came off as a jerk earlier. I'm not sure what, exactly I was implying any more atm, but it wasn't that
 
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