shortjazzdude
Greenlighter
- Joined
- May 20, 2013
- Messages
- 28
Compared to drugs that act somewhat similarly (ie benzos) Alcohol is much more likely to cause a loss of inhibitions resulting in foolish behavior and such. Why is that?
This was a great study on the effects of alcohol on various neurochemical processes:
http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC165791/
However I'm not quite sure you're comparing them on an even playing field. Alcohol will not cause lack of inhibitions after one glass just as benzodiazepines won't cause it at therapeutic doses. However when either or are used in excess of therapeutic levels both cause a very similar loss of inhibitions (among other things).
Alcohol causes dopamine release?
Interesting. Thats prob why it seems to increase the effects of meth when used at certain points during a binge. One major thing it always does for me is re-activating the stim euphoria near the end of the binge when the serious SNS stimulation has kicked in and the ephedrine symptoms are at their peak (tingles, gooseflesh, pupils, vasoconstriction). Always somehow turns the SNS stimulation back into proper dopamine euphoria. Always wondered why.