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When the body metabolizes adrafinil, does it produce equal amounts of R- an S-modafin

MisterJohnson

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This is a sort of train of questions, the answers to which I have tried to find UTSE, to no avail, and I was hoping some of you guys might be able to help me out. Even partial answers would be very helpful. This may get a bit long, so please bare with me (yeah, I'm typing naked).

I have tried modafinil and was for a brief period even prescribed R-modafinil, both of which I found to be useful. However, I've recently been plagued with both daytime fatigue and sleepiness. I have recently acquired a bit of adrafinil in powder form as a cost-saving measure, as my job (landscaping/landscape maintenance) requires me to be alert throughout the day, especially on days when I'm the driver. I tried quitting caffeine, or at least minimizing my intake, because the up/crash cycle is not working for me, but I've had to get back on the caffeine, because I cannot find a dose of adrafinil that works for me; I've tried adrafinil from several sources, and they all had the same problem: no dose of adrafinil that I've tried, up to 1200mg(!) has even helped my drowsiness or alertness.

When taking modafinil in the past, I found 300mg to be my optimal dose; with R-modafinil, 200mg served me just as well. I figured something like 400-500mg adrafinil would be equivalent to those doses, given that some of the adrafinil will be converted to the inactive adrafinilic acid [http://onlinelibrary.wiley.com/doi/10.1111/j.1527-3458.1999.tb00100.x/pdf, pg. 3]. Not so. That study also found that a 40mg/kg dose actually produced a lower plasma concentration after 10hr than the 10mg/kg dose, suggesting a sweet-spot dose, but I titrated up. My first question in this train: does the most-common synthesis of adrafinil produce a 1:1 ratio between the R- and S- enantiomers, or some other ratio? I'm assuming here that my sources' sources use the cheapest, commonest method of synthesis.

Let's assume that the enantiomer ratio of adrafinil is in fact 1:1. When the liver converts adrafinil into modafinil, does it "prefer" one enantiomer over another, say producing a 2:1 ratio of S- and R-modafinil, respectively? From what I've heard, both are active in pretty much the same way, except to my knowledge, that the R- isomer is somewhat more potent, but this study [http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/19391150] seems to indicate that the S-isomer is inactive, at least at the dopamine receptors observed; however, modafinil does not exert its effects solely through dopamine receptors, so the S-isomer is probably only less potent. So are both isomers produced in equal amounts by the liver, or is one "preferred?"

If in fact the S- isomer is "preferred," that may explain why even large doses of adrafinil produced little to no effect.

Another thought that occurred to me was that perhaps I am deficient in one of the enzymes that converts adrafinil into modafinil. Which leads to my third question: what enzymes are involved in this conversion? A deficiency or lack of one may explain the total lack of effects adrafinil has been having one me.

If I cannot solve this problem, I may have to just go ahead and get prescribed modafinil or R-modafinil, but that would have to wait until my current insurance lapses and I can get my ACA-subsidized plan, which I may do anyway, since my subsidy will allow for me to get prescribed modafinil much cheaper than Internet adrafinil. But that won't be for another month or two.

Any help will be greatly appreciated.
 
Unless I'm mistaken, the chiral center of modafinil is the sulfoxide sulfur atom. For those not in the know, it is a chiral center because there are 4 non-identical chemical groups connected to it:
- the diphenyl
- the acetamide (ethaneamide)
- the oxygen
- lone pair electrons, which are usually not displayed but they are present on a lot of heteroatoms (non-carbons)

Adrafinil is likely racemic when you get it, and the hydroxamic acid is a group slightly removed from that chiral sulfoxide.

The only way it would all get isomerized to R or S modafinil upon enzymatic conversion / loss of the hydroxide, is if the enzyme would somehow bind in a way that forces this swap. Seems very unlikely. So your racemic adrafinil should just turn into racemic modafinil.

You are trying to figure out why adrafinil is less effective?
I would guess either
- incomplete conversion
- unfavorable pharmacokinetics
- impure powder
 
Adrafinil is sold as a racemate, I think. Most drugs are unless they are specifically mentioned to be chiral.

When the liver converts adrafinil into modafinil, does it "prefer" one enantiomer over another, say producing a 2:1 ratio of S- and R-modafinil, respectively?

Usually enzymes are stereospecific in some way (they're made of chiral protiens!), so the answer is 'probably yes'. But you'd need to measure to be sure.
 
Usually enzymes are stereospecific in some way (they're made of chiral protiens!), so the answer is 'probably yes'. But you'd need to measure to be sure.

Isn't that mostly true for enzymes that have rather selective substrates? This dehydroxilation seems so general and terminal, and the chirality of modafinil hardly seems like it would pose steric hindrance issues that determine enzyme binding? I just doubt that there are enzymes very selectively made for adrafinil, and one isomer at that.

But I'm not sure, am interesting what you have to say about it tho.

(Hmm guess it makes sense that there would be some preference in a lot of cases, now that i think about it more. Sorry)

More generally, yes I heard that R-isomers of relatively simple metabolic compounds in a human body are found mostly. Oh no apparently it is more nuanced than that:

L-Alanine is a representative amino acid that is used in human and animal metabolism. The D isomer is not used. In the metabolism of carbohydrates only the D isomer is utilized and not the L isomer.
 
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I recall reading of a pharmaceutical, I think it may even have been one brand of modafinil, that was 80% one isomer and 20% the other. I don't know if this was intentional by the maker, or if that's just the ratio that their method of synthesis happened to produce. I know I'm getting the racemate, but is it possible that the natural ratio of the two isomers is not even, and that the less potent isomer of modafinil is being produced in my body. But even then, it seems I should get something out of it, and I'm really not willing to up the dose even more, because I like my liver.

I would guess either
- incomplete conversion
- unfavorable pharmacokinetics
- impure powder

What do you mean by "incomplete conversion?" That at some point my body just throws its hands up and says "I'm not turning any more of this stuff into modafinil!"

I'm afraid unfavorable pharmacokinetics may be responsible here, that my body just doesn't metabolize adrafinil normally, and that its being excreted as-is. But I'm hoping otherwise, hence the thread.
 
I guess in a way I meant the same with incomplete conversion and unfavorable kinetics. No not that the body gives up, but that it's not really doing the metabolism in a short timeframe. Even if everything is converted within the duration of effects, there is much less of a peak in blood plasma levels of modafinil which is what I meant with the kinetics. And of course that tends to translate to less intense effects.

It's interesting to try and figure this out, cause you could respond to that by for example buying different product if that solves the problem... but for another part, I guess you can just react to what you know so far. And for example take more, get regular modafinil, etc I am not sure about all options.

Or you know, get your urine tested =D
 
Why is this drug toxic to the liver? I took it for a few days once and I felt like I was dying.

I'm just interested in why this happens. I haven't located a good explanation of it.
 
Why is this drug toxic to the liver? I took it for a few days once and I felt like I was dying.

I'm just interested in why this happens. I haven't located a good explanation of it.

It's toxic to the liver because it changes levels of enzymes that the liver needs, to ELY5 it. The answer to this question is really all over the place. Also, not trying to claim this thread as my territory or anything, but your question really doesn't have much to do with the thread's topic. Perhaps you could start your own thread and get a more in-depth answer, or dig a little deeper with your search engine of choice.

Adrafinil is toxic to the liver over the long term, so you wouldn't feel like you were dying after a few days' use. This reminds me of a time at boarding school when a friend dropped by my room to start off a DXM trip. When he told me he had taken Coricidin Cold and Cough, I absentmindendly mentioned that one of the ingredients is hepatotoxic. Not long after, his trip went south for a while, and he curled up in a ball saying that he could feel his liver dying. I apologized later.

People have been prescribed adrafinil daily for long periods of time without serious liver damage.

I've tried different sources; purity isn't the issue here.

Also, the rhodium synthesis for adrafinil and modafinil says that the enantiomer ratio for modafinil is 1:1, and there is no reason I can think of that adrafinil would be any different. Given that, and the fact that I feel the effect of the adrafinil building slightly day-to-day (though it's slight enough to be possible placebo, I'll keep it up until I get it working or decide to drop the effor), I think my body's chemistry just doesn't support this conversion well. I think I will continue this regimen, taking breaks on days where I can afford to take naps (weekends) and also alternating with oxiracetam/choline BT and caffeine to take some of the stress off my liver, which apparently has enough trouble with this stuff as it is.

I would just order modafinil, but in the years since I've last done that, apparently demand has skyrocketed, because it is prohibitively expensive with my current income, whereas it used to be dirt-cheap. Once my current insurance lapses when I turn 26 this month, and I get my ACA-subsidized plan, I will try to get it prescribed.

I hate to shoot down my own question, but apparently I have an unusual body chemistry that doesn't allow me to even roughly guess how much I'm getting out of a given dose. 'Til ACA, I suppose I'll experiment with other cheap eugeroics and titrate my adrafinil dose to a point where it works as I need it to; but if it ends up taking 5g to get the intended effects, it's really not cost-effective, and I'll just figure something out that doesn't involve amphetamines.

Edit: Thanks for the help, guys! While I didn't exactly get my questions all-the-way-answered, I know that some of them were unanswerable without expensive urine tests. Just as valuable.
 
This reminds me of a time at boarding school when a friend dropped by my room to start off a DXM trip. When he told me he had taken Coricidin Cold and Cough, I absentmindendly mentioned that one of the ingredients is hepatotoxic. Not long after, his trip went south for a while, and he curled up in a ball saying that he could feel his liver dying. I apologized later.

The same thing happens to me after taking DXM. Massive pains superficial to the liver. I didn't know it was hepatotoxic. I don't think your friend is a hypochondriac. Some of just have extremely sensitive organs. Either that, or these chemicals bring about rare but acute liver toxicity.

When I have more time, I'll post here an essay I'm presently writing about my experiences with these chemicals, along with a series of Petrarchan sonnets that are sitting in one of my notebooks and may shed some further light on my state of mind while experiencing these symptoms.
 
Probably been mentioned already but if the substance is a racemic mixture of both isomers then it yes it probably would, because to produce a specific isomer you need specifically isomerized reagents.
So if you consumed only one isomer of adrafinil your body would produce an isomerized metabolite as a result.
My biochemistry and chemistry knowledge is VERY lacking so don't hold me to this :?
 
because to produce a specific isomer you need specifically isomerized reagents.

Everyone who's said this forgets that every single protein/enzyme in your body is chiral by virtue of its being made of amino acids. So the rule of thumb is that more often than not, enzymes will preferentially matabolise one enantiomer over the other (c.f. L-amphetamine has a longer half life than D-amphetamine by a few hours, one enantiomer of thalidomide is a mutagen interacting with DNA, and the other isn't, etc)
 
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