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Variation in opioid tolerance from person to person (first time users)???

D

Dolomiti

Bluelighter
Joined
Jan 25, 2007
Messages
84
Hi,
I was wondering if anyone had any answers or opinions on this.
My question is... can opioid tolerance vary from person to person? I mean, without a 'habit'. Like the first 5-10 highs may require more or less dosage for the same feeling from one person to another.
I know this can happen with all drugs to a degree... especially depending on body size and such.

I mainly wonder because, it seems like I have a very low tolerance to... well... most drugs. Legal or illegal. And I don't know if it is body chemistry or how much of it is my preference to just prefer a more lighter effect.

Hydrocodone for instance. I would take 2.5-7.5 mg for a nice buzz. 7.5 was an upper limit, really, even after developing a very minor tolerance. The nausea got too uncomfortable after that point.

I tend to have low tolerance compared to friends, with alcohol and weed.

I don't do any of these drugs now. I'm just curious what is up with this. Especially the hydro tolerance.
I'm male and am fairly light, though normal height. Young adult.
 
My natural tolerance to many drugs seems to be quite low as well. However, my girlfriend has downed over 20mg of oxy several times (including her first try) and got absolutely nothing from it besides a tony bit of nausea. She has no previous opiate experience.
 
Well that would sort of fit in with the current theory that those predisposed to opiate addiction re so because of an underactivity of the endogenous opioid system by one means or another. This should translate in the real world as meaning that two people could require differing doses of an opiate agonidt like morphine to acheive the same degree of analgesia.
 
Pardon if I made this thread in the wrong forum, please move if I did. I'm new.

fastandbulbous said:
Well that would sort of fit in with the current theory that those predisposed to opiate addiction re so because of an underactivity of the endogenous opioid system by one means or another. This should translate in the real world as meaning that two people could require differing doses of an opiate agonidt like morphine to acheive the same degree of analgesia.
Click to expand...

So if it fit, could that mean that those predisposed to a higher likelihood of addiction might require a higher dose than the average person to feel the same high?

I might as well add to this that... for me personally: despite me loving opioids very much... I don't really care to bother to use them very often, mostly because I already often feel euphoric enough while sober. There are even times, (few times a month?) where I'll have this odd almost "high" like feeling, as if I took an opiate, yet I'm sober when it occurs. It's not that I'm an overly happy sort of person, and I have depressive times, but generally I'm fairly content.
 
fastandbulbous said:
Well that would sort of fit in with the current theory that those predisposed to opiate addiction re so because of an underactivity of the endogenous opioid system by one means or another. This should translate in the real world as meaning that two people could require differing doses of an opiate agonidt like morphine to acheive the same degree of analgesia.
Click to expand...

That is quite interesting. Most people I know who love opiates do have a rather low natural tolerance to them until they build tolerance with abuse.
 
OverDriven said:
That is quite interesting. Most people I know who love opiates do have a rather low natural tolerance to them until they build tolerance with abuse.
Click to expand...


Like they need a bit of external 'help' to normalize their functioning (ie without opiates they seem unduely sensitive to the external world and/or a bit depressive in nature?). That intuitively seems to all fit together IMO
 
fastandbulbous said:
Like they need a bit of external 'help' to normalize their functioning (ie without opiates they seem unduely sensitive to the external world and/or a bit depressive in nature?). That intuitively seems to all fit together IMO
Click to expand...

Do you have any papers/refs for this theory? I'm trying to figure out which mechanisms are at work. Could one describe this kind of person as having a general sensory hypersensitivity?
 
dubmachine said:
Do you have any papers/refs for this theory? I'm trying to figure out which mechanisms are at work. Could one describe this kind of person as having a general sensory hypersensitivity?
Click to expand...

No...what it means is that these people have extra sensitive opiate receptors due to naturally low endorphin levels. The receptors basically become more sensitive to counter the fact that the endorphins are low.
 
^ Yep. that's it. I can't give you specific papers, just things that I read in thimngs like NNew Scientist & Nature over the past few years
 
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