Kalash
Bluelighter
Then Congress's ability to regulate is absolute, and any right afflicted by such regulation is moot - denied - and rendered invalid under a regulatory scheme, so long as Congress can create a "rational basis" for regulating that thing?The meaning of the Constitution is explained and applied by cases. Vague terms such as "due process" and so forth receive clarification. Caselaw is, like it or not, law.
If you can find a prohibition in the Constitution, or recognition of some fundamental property right, that would render the CSA unconstitutional, then name it.
That's not all Raich upheld. Raich upheld the constitutionality of the CSA even as applied to medical marijuana. Specifically, the Court said:
Unlike those at issue in Lopez and Morrison, the activities regulated by the CSA are quintessentially economic. “Economics” refers to “the production, distribution, and consumption of commodities.” Webster’s Third New International Dictionary 720 (1966). The CSA is a statute that regulates the production, distribution, and consumption of commodities for which there is an established, and lucrative, interstate market. Prohibiting the intrastate possession or manufacture of an article of commerce is a rational (and commonly utilized) means of regulating commerce in that product.36 Such prohibitions include specific decisions requiring that a drug be withdrawn from the market as a result of the failure to comply with regulatory requirements as well as decisions excluding Schedule I drugs entirely from the market. Because the CSA is a statute that directly regulates economic, commercial activity, our opinion in Morrison casts no doubt on its constitutionality.
The court is wrong here - and it is in conflict with U.S. v. Schick.
Note also that removal from the market is for "failure to comply with regulatory requirements" - and the CSA requires that the items simply be removed AS the regulation. Can the "regulation" amount to the punishment for failure to comply with the regulatory measures themselves?
A step is being skipped here... And I maintain that step is procedural due process.
Use of medical marijuana is not a RIGHT - it is a PRIVILEGE issued by "medical license" by a controlling authority. The court was correct - as the Fed. Govt. retains control over Marijuana that no license allowing the "privilege" of use/possession of medical marijuana by any party other than the Fed. Govt. can exclude one from prosecution under the Federal Law.I've quoted earlier cases stating the criteria under which the Court determines the constitutionality of regulations of property under the Commerce Clause. Those cases remain good law today. Those cases foreclose any argument that the property right you claim to exist, does in fact exist. The courts have long held, with the aberration of the Lochner era, that it does not. Without a recognition of that right, your argument that the CSA is unconstitutional does not stand.
Moreover, note that when Raich attempted to argue before the 9th Circuit that the CSA was a violation of substantive due process, in that it denied her the right to preserve her health and life by the use of medical marijuana, she was denied.
Growing, possessing, and using marijuana for any purpose one decides - so long as it does not inflict injury upon the rights of another IS a right which Government, under the Constitution, cannot take away - and this is not what was being decided, nor challenged. No "right" was raised in contention to the law preventing a ruling on its constitutionality when held up to those rights.
I don't recognize any authority to control that supersedes the rights of the people.
Government doesn't recognize any "right" I may possess which it cannot control absolutely - even to the point of deprivation of that right, without crime, without prosecution, and without procedural due process.
It's semantic - assuredly - but it is fundamental in nature, and simplistic.
If a right cannot be criminalized and converted into a crime - or licensed back to the people - any regulatory scheme claiming to do so is invalid. (Shuttlesworth v. Birmingham, Shick v. U.S.)
Asserting the RIGHT created by a licensing scheme is also to be held invalid, as no RIGHT can be created by license.
Operating under a license - and proclaiming that the "State issued license" grants you certain "rights" is fallacious on numerous levels, and the court is correct in this ruling...
But the ruling does not uphold the Constitutionality of the act itself - not entirely, only its enactment under the Interstate Commerce Clause as a means of regulating commerce.
The challenge of the rights of personal property ownership against the CSA have not been raised, nor is property the only right inflicted with mortal wounds;
The attack upon the statute has not been raised where the rights of an individual - to include liberty; free choice in the market place, personal risks and benefits to be undertaken, property; created and owned, used, without the claim of licensed protection from a non-controlling agency (Supremacy clause - Fed. Control overrides State License.), and pursuit of happiness; to determine for one's self that which makes him happy, and to pursue it so long as he does not come in conflict with the rights of another...
Can Congress, by mandate, create "RIGHTS OF GOVERNMENT" (to control commerce - and all items within it, depriving any owner of any right to that good, seizing those rights for absolute Governmental control, criminalizing the engagement in rights by the property owners) which can be violated as though they were "Rights of a Sovereign"?
I find this concept ludicrous.
Government has no rights - and it cannot be the victim of an act which brings harm to no other (without their consent).
The hypothetical harms alleged are tantamount to a claim that in order to prevent "crime" we must use armed, deadly force to control the property of our neighbors, lest we be tempted to possess their property and not be able to constrain our desires.
There is no rational basis for such a claim, and there is no review of Governmental policy that can create superiority of a granted power of Government over the rights of the people.
Through the enactment of the CSA, Congress refused to recognize any right to property in this nation (Per policy on law making per Senate Resolution 63 - http://www.ripit4me.org/Subjects/MoneyBanking/History/SenateDoc43.pdf - See page 13, the first paragraph) - and the District judge told me as much.
If Government can legislate away the rights of the people, we are not living under a legitimate government, and any law passed by an illegitimate government is not valid law.
This contention that all property is held by the state - and that all "ownership" of property is at the privilege of the state is entirely unconstitutional - and any law based upon such premise is, regardless of case law supporting it, unconstitutional in every manner conceivable.
A person taking another's wallet recognizes no right of their victim to possess that wallet.
A government taking another's property recognizes no right of their victim to possess that property.
There is no difference here except for scope - Government is beyond justice, as it proclaims that it IS justice itself.
But crime remains crime, regardless of the number that defend it.
No right can be created under the Constitution which allows one to control the property of another without their consent, especially when that control is to be held by the limited Federal Government that expressly has no rights at all, and cannot be the victim of any crime, as a crime cannot exist without a trespass upon another's rights.
The irrationality of separation between criminal and civil law - where criminal law requires no victim, while civil law retains that requirement is beyond my ability to express.
That one can be denied his life, liberty, or property for committing an act that does not even hold him civilly liable to another for an injury done to him is so far beyond my ability to reason that I cannot accept your claim that the Judiciary can simply enable Government to make these changes without altering the Rule of Law itself.
If the Constitution is, as it claims, a document equal to that of a "Power of Attorney" document - whereby the RIGHTS of the people are taken, and certain privileged executions in the name of the people's rights may be undertaken by a central agency, in a good faith representation of "The People" - it remains impossible, under Contract Law, for Government to engage in any power - originating from that Power of Attorney document - which is in excess of the rights of the people creating those powers.
I have no right to control your property for any reason, nor do I have a right to deprive you of your control over your property unless I challenge your use in a civil suit and it is deemed that your possession or use is destructive to my rights.
When it comes to property, government may serve as a mediator - nothing more - under the Constitution. It is a 3rd party without stake in the outcome of the proceedings. LAW created under the Constitution cannot make Government the primary party of interest in all cases regarding property, nor can any act passed under the authorities CREATED in the Constitution.
When regulation usurps control over property, seizes property without due process for the benefit of "the people" - Government acts criminally.
Should I decide to control your property for the benefit of "my family" my seizing of that control remains a crime.
Government, acting in the interests of the people, cannot impinge upon the rights of any person in this nation.
That which is crime if I do it to you, remains crime if I do it through manipulation of the Public Servants.
Even if the courts fail to see this, it remains true.
Prevailing law does not mean "good law" - it only means what is widely accepted. Theft is more widely accepted than local regulation, and it remains the prevailing crime.
Victims of crime cannot be held accountable for criminal acts, nor disobedience of orders of those committing crimes against them.
Rationalizations of crime by those in Government do not interest me. The facts, as stated, show clearly that Government is denying property to owners under a regulatory statute and use of robbery and extortion under color of law. (Title 18 Chapter 95 Section 1951)
The further victimization of those suffering under the law is another crime compounding their initial offense. Title 18 Chapter 13 Sections 241 and 242).
No right needs to be asserted in defense of an act for which there are no victims, when the person attempting to defend them self is defending against criminal interference in their life.
Maybe that's an over simplification.
Maybe we no longer live with Equal Protection Under, nor under the Rule of Law.
If that's the case, then there's nothing I can do to protect any right of any person in this nation.
If that's not the case, I have to continue - in pursuit of liberty, not for myself, but for us all. (And I don't just mean drug users - I mean EVERYONE in general).