Azoth_Root
Greenlighter
- Joined
- May 6, 2010
- Messages
- 2
This has been something I have been wondering about for a while, but have been unable to figure out on my own. As I understand it, opiates (and most other drugs) stimulate or depress receptors in the brain which are present to receive endogenous bodily chemicals.
When somebody develops a tolerance (but not a physiological addiction) to a foreign substance such as an opiate, how does this affect the action of the bodily substances that these receptors were originally meant for? Does their brain produce a higher amount? Are the present chemicals simply less effective?
For instance, it is my understanding that opiates and endorphines both work on the same receptors in the brain. If I were to develop an opiate tolerance but not an addiction, would the endorphins present in my body become less effective, causing me to be more sensitive to pain perhaps?
I'm sorry if this is a confusing question, I am not comfortable enough with the specific terminology to use it properly for the most part. If anybody has any questions or the desire for me to clarify anything I will be more than happy to. Thanks!
When somebody develops a tolerance (but not a physiological addiction) to a foreign substance such as an opiate, how does this affect the action of the bodily substances that these receptors were originally meant for? Does their brain produce a higher amount? Are the present chemicals simply less effective?
For instance, it is my understanding that opiates and endorphines both work on the same receptors in the brain. If I were to develop an opiate tolerance but not an addiction, would the endorphins present in my body become less effective, causing me to be more sensitive to pain perhaps?
I'm sorry if this is a confusing question, I am not comfortable enough with the specific terminology to use it properly for the most part. If anybody has any questions or the desire for me to clarify anything I will be more than happy to. Thanks!
