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  • BDD Moderators: Keif’ Richards | negrogesic

Methadone vs Morphine

4DQSAR

Bluelighter
Joined
Feb 3, 2025
Messages
793
I have noted that some sources compare 5mg of methadone with 7.5mg of morphine, but other sources suggest the potency of raecemic methadone is between 50% and 100% (i.e. equipotent) with morphine.

I think it's because injectable methadone isn't common (in fact it may no longer be available). In the UK when an opioid-dependent client was also addicted to the needle, they would be prescribed 'wets' i.e. methadone hydrochloride solution in ampoules. These were reserved for people for whom the act of 'fixing' a drug was just as big an issue as the drug itself.

The pharmokinetics of oral methadone are truly freaky with data suggesting bioavailability between 41% and 98%, peak plasma levels between 4 and 7 hours and a half-life of anywhere between 8.4 and 16.7 hours. But as we know, parentheral routes provide more or less 100% bioavailability.

So although it may seem a silly question, I've concluded that the ORIGINAL human trials carried out by Hoechst may still have been used for decades. Certainly I found a 2001 paper suggesting that earlier values assigned to the analgesic potenty of IV methadone may have been understated.

It just feels like it's something the collective 'we' forgot - or never truly agreed on at any point.

Sorry if there IS a detailed paper based on human studies that provides a more precice answer. I did look before asking.
 
A single 5 mg dose of methadone is equivalent to morphine 7.5 mg, but a variable long plasma half-life and broad-spectrum receptor affinity result in a much higher-than-expected relative potency when administered regularly - sometimes much higher than the range given above. Therefore, guidance from a specialist is recommended for conversions to regularly administered methadone.

Above is yet another source claiming a single oral dose of methadone is 50% more potent than morpine BUT that accumulation can alter that value.

So maybe there is a very sound reason why R-4066, or rather the (R) enantiomer of it's acetyl methadol derivative hasn't been used in the treatment of opioid dependence? Because at first glance it seems almost ideal. High-affinity so will blockade even fentanyl, orally active and with an extremely long duration of action. If ORLAAM could be given three times a week, I imagine so could the derivative I mention. But if the variability is even wider than methadone, that isn't as useful. It would have to be tailored to each patient, something HR agenices appear to be doing less and less these days.

My local HR agency simply asserts that buprenorphine is the only option and however big a person's habit, you still get them to take increasing amounts (16 or 24mg/day - it seems to have changed) and then detox people from the buprenorphine dependence YOU caused.
 
Another thing not really discussed is the forced inclusion of Narcan, and the (intentional?) conflation of Buprenorphine with Suboxone. Patient retention rates in the US are quite low with the various Suboxone derivatives. They're all basically the same thing.

But Methadone doesn't come with the same adulteration mandates. I've found them both to be poorly tolerated by myself, and friends in the life. Known complications for Methadose are intestinal obstruction, and prolonged withdrawal of greater intensity.

Suboxone comes with its own trade-offs, including precipitated withdrawals under normal dosing, leading to low compliance and often discontinuation of services. There's also interactions with SSRI medications, which can block their effectiveness.

Even after many years we don't have good MAT therapy options in the states; if you're not willing to feel worse in treatment than you were self-medicating.
 
The thing is, buprenorphine and naloxone have roughly the same receptor affinity. I haven't checked if one has a significnatly lower EC50 than the other but my suspicion is that the values will be similar.

Long ago I talked to a French BLer who mentioned that they would fix buprenorphine + naloxone tablets. They remarked that they would feel ill for around 10 minutes until the extremely short T1/2 of naloxone meant that the buprenorphine took over.

Actually, AFAIK it's a lie that consuming a full agonist after buprenorphine will produce withdrawal. Yes, suficient buprenorphine will blunt the effects of a full agonist, but it won't produce WD.

On the plus side, I found that just 4mg buprenorphine/day (the most I could tolerate) was sufficient to essentially reverse my dependence. I only took it for a week and ignored the dictum that 'however much a client consumes, ALL clients will slowly be titrated up to 16 or 24mg/day and then a reduction from there' which was to me a HUGE dose. I just didn't need it and given the severe anxiety, didn't WANT it. It certainly made me think 'I never want to NEED that stuff again' and 15 years later, the only drugs I consume are those prescribed to me. I seek nothing safe pain relief.
 
This is anectdotal of course --- and I admit they were methadone pills not meant for IV but orally I would put methadone at least 3x as potent as morphine PO. 46%-90% is a real wide range I feel like my metabolism must have been closer to 90 because the first time I did 15mg of methadone i went pale and I was use to 90mg morphine insufflated (shutup it was along time ago i learned). Hell I even read the chitosan study and bought some and was cutting my phine lines with a small amnt of it (to little/placebo effect probably)

oh yea the other part of the premise IV methadone did little to possibly less than oral IME with tablets (which you gotta be real dumb to shoot and I was for a bit)

*edit* I think the naloxone part is a myth. I know I went into surgery on bupe and told the surgeon that many times as I was a bit scared the pain relief wouldn't work. IV fent no PWD. Also I have taken massive doses of about every opiate trying to break through sub over the years ---- that is how i knew shit was fishy when a half a stamp dropped me after 4 mg of sub 12-16 hours earlier and haven't copped since. (I suspect something other than an opi took me down honestly). Never heard of anyone going into precip taking a full agonist after suboxone ---- Now vice versa and take suboxone while you are on full agonists and obviously that is the formula for precip.
 
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I appreciate it was a small study and that 'liking' is an entirely subjective description, but it would appear that the acute potency of raecemic methadone is just slightly less than morphine.

It's all very muddied because that long duration of methadone will result in bioaccumulation so it may appear to be more potent.

But then, I would not be one bit surprised if someone finds and equally good or indeed a better paper which gives a different result.
 
@Púca Rebellion I'm not really sure what you mean when you say that Methadone causes intestinal obstruction. Constipation is one of the archetypal Opioid symptoms along with stuff like itching (pruritus) and miosis (narrowed pupils). Otherwise, an intestinal obstruction would be something like a foreign body becoming stuck in the the digestive tract. I am not aware of "Methadose" causing any side effects that are significantly different than any other form of Methadone. Granted, there are people who are sensitive to certain dyes and binders that are used in pharmaceuticals, though this is not what you're describing.

I definitely would disagree that "Methdose" produces a withdrawal of "greater intensity". I could be wrong, I just can't imagine how this could be the case.

Methadone is a generic drug. Methadone clinics, just like hospitals and pharmacies have the ability to choose where they buy their drugs from. "Methadose" is just one example of a commonly used brand name, though this is not at all a uniform thing across the country. I am not convinced that the issues you are describing with "Methadose" are accurate. I would ask you to throw down some references for these claims so we can further the debate.

@4DQSAR First off, the Buprenorphine tends to bind to the Mu Opioid Receptor (MOR) with a slightly higher affinity than that of Naloxone. What this means is that Naloxone will play a negligible role in how the combination of Buprenorphine/Naloxone actually effects a person. The biggest crime of Pharma here is just this, that they marketed a drug at significantly higher cost during a huge wave of Opioid addiction. Buprenorphine was already a relatively cheap generic drug by this point. Pharma manufacturers would go on to convince the powers that be of Suboxone's decreased abusability as the result of the Naloxone. This led to a practice of only prescribing Suboxone due to the perceived risk of standalone Buprenorphine.

Even despite the mounting evidence that the Naloxone found in "Suboxone" has practically no effect whatsoever (it's more common to encounter folks who are allergic to Naloxone than anything else, even these cases are a very small percentage of the whole) the practice of prescribing "Suboxone" has continued in America and the myth of its requirement mostly persists among doctors too stupid or lazy to read into it.

Also, you were discussing Precipitated Withdrawal. First off, we know that the Naloxone in "Suboxone" does not cause precipitated withdrawal due to the above-mentioned competition for binding affinity with Buprenorphine. Naloxone will not produce a mild form of precipitated withdrawal on a completely open-ended basis when a person is maintained on "Suboxone".

Next, Precipitated Withdrawal is not a phenomenon that works "both ways" as you're describing. Buprenorphine basically unseats other Opioids from your MOR's and takes their place. This is a pretty simplistic explanation, but it's accurate. This "unseating" is also why Buprenorphine is able to block the effects of these same Opioids. To be clear, Buprenorphine produces precipitated withdrawal in an Opioid-dependent individual. If that same individual then takes an Opioid agonist like Morphine, the effects of the Morphine will just be blocked as opposed to producing precipitated withdrawal.

Now back to the original objective of this post, discussing the relative potency of Methadone compared to other common Opioid agonists. I believe that the numbers used in the "mainstream" i.e. dose conversion charts/calculators are probably as close to accurate as we can easily get.

If we are comparing to say Morphine/Heroin, Oxycodone, Hydrocodone to name a few, Methadone is well-known for a greater variability/lower predictability regarding how a given dose will effect a specific person. Methadone is highly effected by enzymes of the P450 family, whereas the others I have listed here are negligibly effected. When the numbers for bioavailability are listed as between 40%-80%, they are doing their best to account for this variability and keep people safe.

Furthermore, people consume other pharmaceuticals, foods and supplements that can have significant effects on the enzymes I have listed above. What's more, there is evidence that a more alkaline stomach environment can have a positive effect on bioavailability of Methadone. So, at the end of the day, there is a ton of potential variability with this drug specifically that makes it really hard to pin down a universal dosing guideline.

You can only use the established guidelines as a good place to start. The only person who will really know for sure is you when you take the drug though.

I saw some folks talking about the chirality of Methadone. I'm not positive if this is needed, but here is a small tidbit. Methadone is chiral and only one enantiomer is a potent Opioid agonist, that being Levomethadone. Dextromethadone has effects of its own, though they are mild by comparison and not predicated on Opioid agonism.

In certain parts of Europe and elsewhere, only the Levomethadone is used. Germany for instance, uses this stuff a lot. Racemic Methadone is cheaper to produce as the resolution of the molecule is not needed, saving a costly last step in the synthesis process. However, as we know that Dextromethadone produces potentially unwanted and complicating side effects, it's easy to see how this is just as unethical as the purposeless inclusion of Naloxone in the product "Suboxone"

Here we have examples of Pharma using opposite sides of the same idea to fuck with the health of the populace. With Suboxone, they add a useless substance to make more money and with Racemic Methadone they don't do the work of removing a useless substance from the Methadone, also to save money.
 
I saw some folks talking about the chirality of Methadone. I'm not positive if this is needed, but here is a small tidbit. Methadone is chiral and only one enantiomer is a potent Opioid agonist, that being Levomethadone. Dextromethadone has effects of its own, though they are mild by comparison and not predicated on Opioid agonism.

Yes - levomethadone is some x20 more potent than dextromethadone. I know Germany now uses the more active enantiomer. It's crazy that other nations sill use raecemic methadone since it's been established that dextromethadone is cardiotoxic.

But for this comparison, I was assuming raecemic methadone (an equal amount of both enantiomers).
 
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I have been on and off methadone for 25 years. The lowest dose being 30mg and the highest being 180mg. Methadone is one of the hardest opioids to gauge in MME and duration of action before needing another dose (before withdrawal starts). Methadone 10mg IR tablets equal Morphine 30mg IR, so they say. However, the duration of action of the Methadone 10mg IR far exceeds the duration of action of Morphine 30mg IR. This is due to the full-life of Methadone. The effects of both drugs are basically opposite for an opioid tolerant patient vs opioid naive patient.

There are many different ways this discussion can go depending on how are we comparing the drugs, for what reason they are being used, and who is taking them. Both of these drugs are almost opposite as far as affects, their designed purpose, and when a doctor would choose to administer them.

Methadone is a amazing drug for chronic pain syndrome patients that have dealt with chronic pain for decades. After being on opioids/opiates for decades, CPS patients process these drugs quickly and the affects of the drugs are less. By adding Methadone 10mg IR 3-4 times per day, allows the patient to take a base IR every 3-4hrs and the base IR does not drop below a certain point. Example, patient processes Roxicodone 30mg every 4hrs quickly because they have been on it for a decade. Add the Methadone 10mg every 6-8hrs and the physical dependence issue is resolved with adding better pain relief.

Reversed, patient is taking Methadone 10mg every 3hrs and needs a breakthru opioid. The higher dosage of methadone tends to block the breakthru dosage, even if it is Roxicodone 30mg every 8hrs. This is a disadvantage of Methadone for chronic pain syndrome treatment. Especially if Morphine is used as the breakthru being weaker than Roxicodone.

I have been in pain management for 40 years and this is how I take Methadone to help with physical dependence & add bonus pain relief. Roxicodone 30mg: 3-4hrs and Methadone 10mg: 8hrs with adding Clonidine 0.3mg: 8hrs & Ativan 1mg: 12hrs to where I need it most during the day.
 
I have been on and off methadone for 25 years. The lowest dose being 30mg and the highest being 180mg. Methadone is one of the hardest opioids to gauge in MME and duration of action before needing another dose (before withdrawal starts). Methadone 10mg IR tablets equal Morphine 30mg IR, so they say. However, the duration of action of the Methadone 10mg IR far exceeds the duration of action of Morphine 30mg IR. This is due to the full-life of Methadone. The effects of both drugs are basically opposite for an opioid tolerant patient vs opioid naive patient.

There are many different ways this discussion can go depending on how are we comparing the drugs, for what reason they are being used, and who is taking them. Both of these drugs are almost opposite as far as affects, their designed purpose, and when a doctor would choose to administer them.

Methadone is a amazing drug for chronic pain syndrome patients that have dealt with chronic pain for decades. After being on opioids/opiates for decades, CPS patients process these drugs quickly and the affects of the drugs are less. By adding Methadone 10mg IR 3-4 times per day, allows the patient to take a base IR every 3-4hrs and the base IR does not drop below a certain point. Example, patient processes Roxicodone 30mg every 4hrs quickly because they have been on it for a decade. Add the Methadone 10mg every 6-8hrs and the physical dependence issue is resolved with adding better pain relief.

Reversed, patient is taking Methadone 10mg every 3hrs and needs a breakthru opioid. The higher dosage of methadone tends to block the breakthru dosage, even if it is Roxicodone 30mg every 8hrs. This is a disadvantage of Methadone for chronic pain syndrome treatment. Especially if Morphine is used as the breakthru being weaker than Roxicodone.

I have been in pain management for 40 years and this is how I take Methadone to help with physical dependence & add bonus pain relief. Roxicodone 30mg: 3-4hrs and Methadone 10mg: 8hrs with adding Clonidine 0.3mg: 8hrs & Ativan 1mg: 12hrs to where I need it most during the day.
U should check out the options for nerve pain
 
I have been on and off methadone for 25 years. The lowest dose being 30mg and the highest being 180mg. Methadone is one of the hardest opioids to gauge in MME and duration of action before needing another dose (before withdrawal starts). Methadone 10mg IR tablets equal Morphine 30mg IR, so they say. However, the duration of action of the Methadone 10mg IR far exceeds the duration of action of Morphine 30mg IR. This is due to the full-life of Methadone. The effects of both drugs are basically opposite for an opioid tolerant patient vs opioid naive patient.

There are many different ways this discussion can go depending on how are we comparing the drugs, for what reason they are being used, and who is taking them. Both of these drugs are almost opposite as far as affects, their designed purpose, and when a doctor would choose to administer them.

Methadone is a amazing drug for chronic pain syndrome patients that have dealt with chronic pain for decades. After being on opioids/opiates for decades, CPS patients process these drugs quickly and the affects of the drugs are less. By adding Methadone 10mg IR 3-4 times per day, allows the patient to take a base IR every 3-4hrs and the base IR does not drop below a certain point. Example, patient processes Roxicodone 30mg every 4hrs quickly because they have been on it for a decade. Add the Methadone 10mg every 6-8hrs and the physical dependence issue is resolved with adding better pain relief.

Reversed, patient is taking Methadone 10mg every 3hrs and needs a breakthru opioid. The higher dosage of methadone tends to block the breakthru dosage, even if it is Roxicodone 30mg every 8hrs. This is a disadvantage of Methadone for chronic pain syndrome treatment. Especially if Morphine is used as the breakthru being weaker than Roxicodone.

I have been in pain management for 40 years and this is how I take Methadone to help with physical dependence & add bonus pain relief. Roxicodone 30mg: 3-4hrs and Methadone 10mg: 8hrs with adding Clonidine 0.3mg: 8hrs & Ativan 1mg: 12hrs to where I need it most during the day.
Well put man. Very good.
 
Yes - it's my fault for not being clear that was I sought was the ACUTE potency of a single dose of methadone. I did suggest that it might require me to go and look at the Hoescht work from the 1940s as it was as early as then that it was concluded that methadone was 'too toxic' for use when that use was to replace morphine.

Also yes, raecemic methadone costs about $260/Kg whereas the enantiopure compound is more costly. In fact, a German company patented a route to the chiral compound that I THINK it still in force so it's possible that the high price is a result in just one manufacturer being the producer of the entire world supply.

But the fact the papet I found relied on ex-addicts. That's not helpful as it's not a measure of analgesia but a measure of euphoria and I'm only too well aware that some opioids produce euphoria out of all proportion to their analgesic activity. I'm genuinely trying to find the exact opposite - an opioid that has no euphoria, no abuse potential. Before people ask, I am aware of biased ligands but I'm also aware that leter work suggested that rather than being biased, they simply had low effacacy.

So I would still be pleased to know if others can point me to any other papers dealing with the analgesic potency of a SINGLE DOSE of methadone administered via a parentheral route.
 
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I've taken. 24mg/ml done for quite a while... I was nodding for around 8h/day ...

Methadone is an odd one. It gets even crazier when you learn that for a while an even longer-acting methadone derivative (ORLAAM) was used for maintanence for a few years... until someone noted the unusually large number of patients suffering heart attacks.

The laevo-acetyl derivative of R-4066 has a T½ of 22.5 hours and is some x212 methadone in potency. I have pointed this out to various US HR agencies as it's extreme affinity means it will blockade even fentanyl. But for whatever reason(s), nobody is even considering that a new substitution therapy might be needed to deal with the new problems of fentanyl and nitazenes.
 
But the fact the papet I found relied on ex-addicts. That's not helpful as it's not a measure of analgesia but a measure of euphoria and I'm only too well aware that some opioids produce euphoria out of all proportion to their analgesic activity. I'm genuinely trying to find the exact opposite - an opioid that has no euphoria, no abuse potential. Before people ask, I am aware of biased ligands but I'm also aware that leter work suggested that rather than being biased, they simply had low effacacy
For sure, the risks of studies with ex-addicts is that of their evaluations being based on perceptions of euphoria.
But I think another factor might be that of opioid-induced hyperalgesia ( OIH) among opioid users. I hear a lot of people here in BL who say they feel they can't control their pain levels, totally understandable. But how much of that pain is caused by OIH and the resulting pain sensitivity? This isn't just an issue of tolerance, and the effectiveness of a particular opioid might vary based on this, and users with OIH might have very different responses to report. Any alternative has to break through that.
 
I havent really looked into it, but anecdotally ive always found peoples subjective reports on differences in potency and dosing in different formulations of methadone.

For example, i had a friend that goes to the same clinic as i do, she went into treatment for a month in a facility across the state, said facility used to give their patients wafers(If i remember right) and before she left, she was on 80mg a day and said she would be blasted most of the day. When she got out she came back to our clinic the next day and was switched to 80mg of the pink liquid(Whatever the brand name is), and it didnt even keep her well. Not just her own self reporting either, id seen the objective signs of withdrawal in her myself. If both formulations are 80mg of active compound then the amount metabolized should be relatively similar if the ROA is the same, despite liquid or wafer form right?
 
Well put man. Very good.
thanks man. Methadone is a unique opioid and more is being discovered about it. Especially ranking it on the MME scale, where taking higher doses increases the MME value and consistent repeating daily doses increase the MME value.

In the United States, Methadone makes up for 3% of pain medications prescribed. Normally this is the case because it is not prescribed until after many other opiates/opioids have been exhausted. One reason is the difficulty when rotating the patient from Methadone to another opiate/opioid. Typically when doctors rotate opiates/opioids they drop the daily MME dosage by 25%-50% because the newer drug is believed to have pronounced higher effects. With rotating Methadone to a different drug it takes more of the new opiate/opioid because Methadone soaks into the body everywhere. This contradicts the medical data for rotating.
 
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