I've read here and there that people have noticed if they take piracetam sublingually, it works "MUCH BETTER" and might not have the 'bell shaped curve' of taking too much piracetam and getting less effects from it.
Of course, the taste is kinda horrible.. wondering if there's anything 'bad' about its structure that would be 'bad' to IM it, also is it possible piracetam undergoes some kind of metabolism into something else (eventually) and this would be the reason why sublingual works better?
Of course, the taste is kinda horrible.. wondering if there's anything 'bad' about its structure that would be 'bad' to IM it, also is it possible piracetam undergoes some kind of metabolism into something else (eventually) and this would be the reason why sublingual works better?