Hello, I was just wondering how many days in a row (or even one day on, one day off) you would have to take of 1mg lorazepam before developing a very negative withdrawal symptoms without it? I ask this as I have been prescribed 1mg of lorazepam per night for sleep due to insomnia. My doctor knows I smoke weed and said 1mg should be enough to put me to sleep w/o weed as the normal dose she presrcibes to some patients who take it in conjuction with weed is .5mg. She said if I didn't like 1mg or went also smoked for sleep that I could cut it back to just .5. I wish to no longer need marijuana to aid in sleep, but am also worried about the physically addictive properties of benzo's. I was on zopiclone, but that and marijuana was no longer sufficient for a good nights sleep. So far the lorazepam helps, but the 1mg does not feel sufficient. Since going to university I have been drinking 3-4 days a week and am thinking that has created some kind of cross tolerance. Is there a chance that after several nights with no alcohol and no weed before bed that the 1mg will become sufficient enough on its own (with increased excersize/physical activity? And in the event that it did prove effective, how many consecutive nights at 1mg of lorazepam would it take to develop a strong physical dependance?
Considering how benzo withdrawals have the potential to be very severe and even fatal, I am just concerned that I will be, in effect, trading in one substance for sleep for another that has potential to cause more harm in the long term.
Considering how benzo withdrawals have the potential to be very severe and even fatal, I am just concerned that I will be, in effect, trading in one substance for sleep for another that has potential to cause more harm in the long term.
