BrokedownPalace said:
Other can back me up on this, no doubt.
The problem is, like I said, tolerance builds fucking FAST. I've been on them for years and don't get that awesome high anymore, especially since I take benzos in conjunction so my GABA tolerance is jacked up. If you don't legitimately need it for neuropathic pain/seizures, and are purely looking for recreation, it is best to use them 2-3 times per month maximum so your tolerance and GABA receptors don't get man-handled to the point of no return.
(Wow, your post essentially mirrored my own, and posted only two minutes apart!) Yours, however, went into greater depth (
all of which is factual, I can attest to that as I was prescribed Neurontin for seven years before switching to Lyrica). Really, a very well-written "Neurontin 101" post, there, BDP.
I am curious - would you agree with the statement that I made in my post directly above yours, where I maintained that tolerance to pregabalin builds more quickly than does tolerance to gabapentin (and, as stated, gabapentin tolerance builds very, very quickly in its own right!!)? I have extensive experience with both compounds. I loved how you called it a 'tricky compound,' because that really does tend to sum up my feelings, experiments and experiences with these GABAergic AEDs. IME, if one thinks gabapentin is tricky, then pregabalin is 'tricky' on steroids lol.
I, too, am (and have been for over a decade :/ ) been concomitantly prescribed various benzodiazepines - one, or another, or two to four at the same time, what a journey - but I have noticed that my overwhelming tolerance to GABAergics has not seemed to interfere with the pharmacological activity of these AED GABAergics - at least, not according to the compound's pharmacological profile and the vast number of like experiences I have obsessively studied since my join date (I am such a fucking neuropharmacological geek and I loves it! :D ). But I am left with one simple question - if my perception of little to no interference between, say, pregabalin and alprazolam or gabapentin and midazolam is accurate, then
why? By all clinical accounts one class of these drugs should compound tolerance to other GABAergics, thus lessening the effect of one or both.
This question has proven itself quite resilient as the nexus of my preoccupation with compounds that primarily affect the facilitation, upregulation, efficacy and the quantitative presence of GABA and its corresponding receptors in the brain.
Anyway, I'm quite out of my mind at the moment and you've gotten me on quite the bender of psychopharmacological jargon and run-on sentences

I must now end my doped-up tirade. However, if any of what I've just written, especially the question(s) I've posed, is in any way sensical, hit me back with some information! I can already tell that you know your shit, and it is with those types of people I enjoy discussing the tricky conundrums presented by these new-age pharmaceuticals. I mean, shit, pregabalin is a structural analogue of gamma-Aminobutyric acid which itself flows constantly and naturally in our brains. How space-age is that?
Ok, I'm done. Peace
~ vaya